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Airport Operations
ASA Test
90
Aviation
Professional
07/24/2013
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Term
(Refer to figure 45) What are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements in an airplane at night when conducting takeoffs and landings at McCampbell Airport (area 1)
 Definition
1 SM visibility and clear of clouds if remaining within one-half mile of the airport.
Term
What minimum avionics equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
 Definition
Two-way communications and transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.
Term
(Refer to figure 54) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic pattern is
 Definition
left-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 17.
Term
A military operations area (MOA) is airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of
 Definition
separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic.
Term
(Refer to Figure 55.) On what frequency can a pilot activate the approach lights at Redbird Field when the control tower is not in operation?
 Definition
120.3
Term
(Refer to Figure 47.) What is the normal radius of the outer area (area B)?
 Definition
20 NM
Term
All operations within Class C airspace must be
 Definition
in an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.
Term
A turbine-powered or large airplane is required to enter an airport traffic pattern at an altitude of at least
 Definition
1,500 feet AGL.
Term
When information is disseminated about a taxiway closure, it will be located in
 Definition
NOTAM (D) distribution.
Term
A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions established
 Definition
from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the U.S.
Term
When on the upper glidepath of a 3-bar VASI what would be the colors of the lights?
 Definition
The near and middle bars are white and the upper bar is red.
Term
Which equipment is required when operating an aircraft within Class B airspace?
 Definition
Two-way radio communications and transponder with encoding altimeter.
Term
A slightly low indication on a PAPI glidepath is indicated by
 Definition
one white light and three red lights.
Term
Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many feet above the surface?
 Definition
2,500 feet.
Term
What is the purpose of the yellow demarcation bar marking?
 Definition
Delineates runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway.
Term
To operate an aircraft within Class C airspace from a satellite airport without an operating control tower, a pilot must
 Definition
contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
Term
Which transponder code should the pilot of a civilian aircraft never use?
 Definition
7777
Term
A military airfield can be identified by
 Definition
a green and dual-peaked white rotating beacon.
Term
What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?
 Definition
Holds aircraft short of the runway.
Term
Local Airport Advisory service is usually available at all airports
 Definition
where a Flight Service Station is located on the airport.
Term
Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the
 Definition
Airport/Facility Directory.
Term
While in Class G airspace in VFR conditions, what minimum distance from clouds should be maintained when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL, and at or above 10,000 feet MSL?
 Definition
1,000 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 1 mile horizontal.
Term
(Refer to Figure 55.) At what time of day does the tower shut down at Redbird Field?
 Definition
2100 local.
Term
How much time do you have to close a VFR flight plan before search and rescue procedures are initiated?
 Definition
One-half hour after your ETA.
Term
Which is true regarding VFR operations in Class B airspace?
 Definition
Solo student pilots are authorized to fly in Class B airspace if they meet certain requirements.
Term
When operating VFR in Class B airspace, what are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements?
 Definition
3 SM visibility and clear of clouds.
Term
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
 Definition
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.
Term
When landing at an airport that does not have a tower, FSS, or UNICOM, you should broadcast your intentions on
 Definition
122.9 MHz.
Term
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
 Definition
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
Term
(Refer to Figure 53.) If you were making an approach to a helicopter landing area that was marked for public use, which diagram would you most likely see?
 Definition
1
Term
Which statement is true regarding wingtip vortices?
 Definition
Vortices generated by helicopters in forward flight are similar to those generated by fixed wing aircraft.
Term
(Refer to figure 55) Select the correct statement concerning Dallas Love Field
 Definition
The runway gradient for rwy 18 is less than .3 percent.
Term
(Refer to Figure 56.) You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: "N123, Taxi to runway 16." Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller's instructions
 Definition
5 (Five)
Term
What is the purpose of the taxiway ending marker sign?
 Definition
Indicates taxiway does not continue beyond intersection.
Term
A series of continuous red lights in the runway centerline lighting indicates that
 Definition
1,000 feet of runway remain.
Term
Within the contiguous United States, the floor of Class A airspace is
 Definition
18,000 feet MSL.
Term
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
 Definition
Outward, upward, and around each tip.
Term
Regulations stipulate that, at an airport located within Class E airspace and at which ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings of airplanes under special VFR are
 Definition
authorized if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.
Term
An on-glidepath indication from a tri-color VASI is
 Definition
a green light signal.
Term
What is the purpose of No Entry sign?
 Definition
Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.
Term
How long will a Flight Service Station hold a VFR flight plan past the proposed departure time?
 Definition
1 hour.
Term
During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by
 Definition
being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
Term
An airport without a control tower lies within the controlled airspace of an airport with an operating tower. According to regulations, two-way radio communications with ATC are required for landing clearance at
 Definition
the tower-controlled airport only, as well as to fly through the area.
Term
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
 Definition
received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
Term
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?
 Definition
Beyond the jet's touchdown point.
Term
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
 Definition
2,000 feet.
Term
If an aircraft has a transponder, encoding altimeter, and DME, the proper equipment suffix to be entered on a flight plan is
 Definition
A
Term
Which indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?
 Definition
If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to pink to white.
Term
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,
 Definition
18,000 feet MSL.
Term
If an aircraft has a transponder, encoding altimeter, and RNAV, the proper equipment suffix to be entered on a flight plan is
 Definition
I
Term
An airport has pilot controlled lighting but runways without approach lights. How many times should you key your microphone to turn on the MIRL at medium intensity?
 Definition
5 clicks.
Term
(Refer to Figure 47.) What is the radius of the shelf area (circle A)?
 Definition
10 miles
Term
What are the requirements, if any, to overfly Class C airspace?
 Definition
Transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability is required above the airspace ceiling and upward to 10,000 ft MSL.
Term
An airplane may be operated in uncontrolled airspace at night below 1,200 ft above the surface under the following conditions:
 Definition
Less than 3 miles but more than 1 mile visibility in an airport traffic pattern and within one-half mile of the runway.
Term
The UNICOM frequency at airports with a control tower is
 Definition
122.95
Term
While in Class G airspace under day VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and less than 10,000 feet MSL?
 Definition
1 SM
Term
An above-glidepath indication from a tri-color VASI is
 Definition
an amber light signal.
Term
When operating an airplane within Class D airspace under special VFR, the flight visibility is required to be at least
 Definition
1 SM
Term
What is the purpose of the runway hold position sign?
 Definition
Denotes entrance to a runway from a taxiway.
Term
What effect would a crosswind of 5 knots or less have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large aircraft that had just taken off?
 Definition
The upwind vortex would tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.
Term
Class E airspace within the contiguous United States extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including
 Definition
the base of the overlying controlled airspace
Term
While in Class E airspace in VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 ft AGL and at or above 10,000 ft MSL?
 Definition
5 SM
Term
The vertical limit of Class D airspace will normally be designated at
 Definition
up to, and including, 2,500 feet AGL.
Term
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
 Definition
the ceiling is at least 5,000 ft and visibility is 5 miles or more.
Term
The minimum visibility for VFR flight in Class E airspace increases from 3 to 5 SM beginning at an altitude of
 Definition
10,000 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to Figure 47.) Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the surface and shelf areas of this Class C airspace?
 Definition
4,000 feet above airport.
Term
When operating VFR in a military operations area (MOA), a pilot
 Definition
should exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
Term
When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
 Definition
Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
Term
When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
 Definition
The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
Term
If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
 Definition
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.
Term
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately
 Definition
080° and 260° magnetic.
Term
(Refer to Figure 47.) What is the radius of the surface area (circle C)?
 Definition
5 miles.
Term
If a military training route has flights operating at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be designated by
 Definition
IR or VR and a four digit number.
Term
What does a destination sign identify?
 Definition
Direction to takeoff runways.
Term
Flight through a military operations area (MOA) is
 Definition
permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of military activity.
Term
No person may operate an airplane within Class D and E airspace between sunset and sunrise under special VFR unless the
 Definition
airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
Term
Due to the effects of wake turbulence, what minimum separation does ATC provide for a small aircraft landing behind a heavy jet?
 Definition
6 miles
Term
(Refer to Figure 55.) What is the elevation of the DFW VORTAC?
 Definition
560 feet MSL.
Term
What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?
 Definition
Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
Term
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
 Definition
10 miles.
Term
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
 Definition
to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
Term
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
 Definition
Class A.
Term
When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's
 Definition
ground track.
Term
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
 Definition
should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
Term
(Refer to Figure 54.) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?
 Definition
Left-hand traffic on Rwy 35 or right-hand traffic on Rwy 27.
Term
(Refer to Figure 47.) Which altitude (box 2) is applicable to the base of the shelf area?
 Definition
1,200 feet AGL.
Term
What does a series of arrows painted on the approach end of a runway signify?
 Definition
That portion of the runway is not suitable for landing.
Term
When information is disseminated for a navigational facility, it will be located in
 Definition
NOTAM (D) distribution.
Term
Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and when operating within
 Definition
10 miles of any airport.
Term
The visual glidepath of a 2-bar VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10° of the extended runway centerline and to a distance of how many miles from the runway threshold?
 Definition
4 NM
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