Term
| What is the difference between regional and systemic anatomy? What does the book use? |
|
Definition
| Regional is organized according to regions, parts, or divisions of the body. Systemic is organized according to organ systems (i.e. respiratory and nervous). This book uses the systemic approach and discusses only skeletal, muscular, cardiovascular, and respiratory. (the chapter does that) |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| It is the field of study concerned with the principles of physics related to energy and force as they apply to the human body. |
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Term
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Definition
| nearest to the body center, joint center, or reference point. |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| away from the body center, joint center, or reference point. |
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Term
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Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
| lower than, toward the feet. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three cardinal planes in the body? |
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Definition
| Transverse, Sagittal, and Frontal. |
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Term
| What is the sagittal plane? |
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Definition
| It makes a division into right and left portions. |
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Term
| What is the frontal plane? |
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Definition
| It makes a division into anterior and posterior portions. |
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Term
| What is the transverse plane? |
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Definition
| it makes a division into upper and lower portions. |
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Term
| The body has three axes, what are they? |
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Definition
| mediolateral, anteroposterior, and longitudinal. |
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Term
| What is the mediolateral axis? |
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Definition
| It lies perpendicular to the sagittal plane. |
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|
Term
| What is the anteroposterior axis? |
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Definition
| It lies perpendicular to the frontal plane. |
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Term
| What is the longitudinal axis? |
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Definition
| It lies perpendicular to the transverse plane. |
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Term
|
Definition
| a movement that decreases the joint angle. It occurs in a sagittal plane around a mediolateral axis. |
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Term
|
Definition
| a movement that increases the joint angle. It occurs on the sagittal plane around a mediolateral axis. |
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Term
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Definition
| a movement toward the midline of the body in the frontal plane around an anteroposterior axis. |
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Term
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Definition
| movement away from the midline of the body in a frontal plane around an anteroposterior axis. |
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Term
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Definition
| movement around a longitudinal axis and in the transverse plane, either toward the midline or away from the midline. |
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Term
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Definition
| a combination of flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction. The segment moving in circumduction describes a cone. |
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Term
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Definition
| A rotational movement at the radiounlar joint in a transverse plane about a longitudinal axis that results in the palm facing downward. |
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Term
|
Definition
| a rotational movement at the radioulnar joint in a transverse plane around a longitudinal axis that results in the palm facing upward. |
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Term
|
Definition
| extension at the ankle joint. |
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Term
|
Definition
| flexion at the ankle joint. |
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Term
|
Definition
| turning the SOLE of the foot away from the midline. |
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Term
|
Definition
| turning the SOLE of the foot toward the midline. |
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Term
| What is the axial skeleton? |
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Definition
| it is the part of the skeleton that includes the bones of the skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum. |
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Term
| How many bones are in the skull and which one is the most important in terms exercise testing? |
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Definition
| 29 bones. The mandible (lower jaw) is most significant because it may serve as an orienting landmark for palpating the carotid artery to assess pulse. |
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Term
| What is the spine also called? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| How many vertebrae does the human spine commonly have? How many of each kind are there? |
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Definition
| 33. 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral (fused into one bone, the sacrum), and 4 coccygeal (fused into the coccyx). |
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Term
| What are intevertebral disks? |
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Definition
| round, flat, or platelike structures composed of fibrocarilaginous tissue. |
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Term
| What is the outer, fibrocartilaginous portion of the disk? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the inner gelatinous portion of the disk? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of intervertebral disks? |
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Definition
| they unite vertebral bodies and serve to absorb shock and bear weight. |
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Term
| What are the four major vertebral curvatures in the sagittal plane? |
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Definition
Primary: Curves of the thoracic and sacral regions, which are defined as kyphosis. Secondary: Curves of the cervical and lumbar regions, which are defined as lordosis. |
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Term
| What are commonly found abnormal curves in the sagittal plane? |
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Definition
| Hyperkyphosis (exaggerated posterior thoracic curvature) and hyperlordosis (exaggerated anterior lumbar curvature). |
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|
Term
| What is the commonly found abnormal curve in the frontal plane? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| How many pairs of ribs does the body have? How many of those pairs are true ribs? |
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Definition
| 12 pairs, and 7 pairs of true ribs. |
|
|
Term
| What are the spaces between the ribs called? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is palpation of the intercostal spaces of the true ribs important? |
|
Definition
| For correct placement of ECG electrodes. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three parts of the sternum? |
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Definition
| The manubrium (superior), the body (middle), and the xiphoid process (inferior). |
|
|
Term
| What is the sternal angel? |
|
Definition
| A slightly raised surface landmark where the manubrium meets the body of the sternum. |
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|
Term
| Palpitation of the xiphoid process is necessary for what? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What does palpation of the manubrium help to determine? |
|
Definition
| Proper paddle placement in defribrillation. |
|
|
Term
| What does the appendicular skeleton include? |
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Definition
| the bones of the arms and legs and pectoral and pelvic girdles. |
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|
Term
| What are functions of the appendicular skeleton? |
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Definition
| 1) To attach the limbs to the trunk. |
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Term
| What are the two important landmarks of the scapula. |
|
Definition
The inferior angle at the bottom of the scapulae, forming the junction between the medial and lateral borders. The acromion process, the bony process at the most lateral part of the shoulder. |
|
|
Term
| With what does the humerus articulate? |
|
Definition
| proximally with the glenoid fossa of the scapula, and distally with the ulna and radius. |
|
|
Term
| What are the most easily palpable aspects of the humerus? |
|
Definition
| The medial and lateral epicondyles. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two bones of the forearm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which one is the ulna and which one is the radius? |
|
Definition
| radius is the thumb side bone, ulna is opposite. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most prominent bony landmark of the proximal forearm? |
|
Definition
| The olecranon process on the posterior ulna. |
|
|
Term
| At the distal end of the forearm are the ______ _______ _______ laterally, and the _____ _______ _______ medially. These areas help to identify the proper location for assessing radial pulse. |
|
Definition
| radial styloid process, ulnar styloid process. |
|
|
Term
| Of what does the appendicular skeleton comprise? |
|
Definition
| Bones of the pelvic girdle, thigh, leg, and foot. |
|
|
Term
| Of what is the pelvic girdle composed? |
|
Definition
| The hip bones (ilium, ischium, and pubis), sacrum, and coccyx. |
|
|
Term
| What are the superiormost and anteriormost aspects of the ilium? |
|
Definition
| the iliac crest, and the aterosuperior iliac spine. |
|
|
Term
| What is the thigh formed by, and what is its most easily palpable landmark? |
|
Definition
| the femur, and the greater trochanter on the proximal lateral side. |
|
|
Term
| What is located anterior to the knee joint? |
|
Definition
| The patella. It serves as a landmark for locating the thigh skinfold. |
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| By what is the bone covered? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of bone are there? |
|
Definition
| Compact (dense) and cancellous (spongy) |
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Term
| What are the five functions of bone? |
|
Definition
1) Structural support for the entire body. 2) Protect organs and tissues of the body. 3) Serve as levers that can change the magnitude and direction of forces generated by skeletal muscles. 4) Provide storage for calcium salts to maintain concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions in body fluids. 5) Produce blood cells. |
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Term
| What are the four general bone shapes? |
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Definition
| Long bones, Short bones, flat bones, and irregular bones. |
|
|
Term
| Where are long bones found? |
|
Definition
| In the appendicular skeleton. |
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|
Term
| Of what are long bones consisted? |
|
Definition
| Diaphysis, and epiphysis. |
|
|
Term
| What types of bone marrow are in the diaphysis and epipysis? |
|
Definition
| Yellow in the D, Red in the E. |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| production of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. |
|
|
Term
| what are epiphyses covered with? |
|
Definition
| articular (hyaline) cartilage, which facilitates joint movement. |
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|
Term
| Where is the location of the epiphyseal plate? |
|
Definition
| The junction between the epiphysis and the diaphysis. |
|
|
Term
| What happens at the location of the epiphyseal plate? |
|
Definition
| growth of the long bone occurs in immature long bones. |
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|
Term
| What are characteristics of short bones? |
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Definition
| they are almost cuboidal in shape and they are often covered with articular surfaces that interface with joints. |
|
|
Term
| What are characteristics of flat bones? |
|
Definition
| They are thin and relatively broad (e.g. bones of the skull, ribs, and scapulae) |
|
|
Term
| What are characteristics of irregular bones? |
|
Definition
| They have mixed shapes that do not fit easily into other categories (e.g. vertebrae) |
|
|
Term
| What are basic components of connective tissues? |
|
Definition
| specialized cells (e.g. in blood, bone, cartilage), extracellular protein fibers (e.g. elastin, collagen, fibrin), and ground substance. |
|
|
Term
| What are functions of connective tissues? |
|
Definition
| Provide support and protection, transport materials, store mechanical energy reserves, and perform regulatory functions. |
|
|
Term
| What are the structural classes of the joints? |
|
Definition
Fibrous (sutures of the skull) Cartilaginous (disk between vertebrae) Synovial (hip, elbow, etc.) |
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|
Term
| What are the functional classes of the joints? |
|
Definition
Immovable (synarthroses) Slightly movable (amphiarthroses) Freely movable (diarthroses) |
|
|
Term
| What are the types of synovial joints? (6) |
|
Definition
| Ball and socket, condyloid, gliding, hinge, pivot, and saddle. |
|
|
Term
| What are examples and movements of ball and socket joints? |
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Definition
| Hip and shoulder, circumduction, rotation, and angular in all planes. |
|
|
Term
| What are examples and movements of condyloid joints? |
|
Definition
| Wrist, circumduction, abduction, adduction, flexion, and extension. |
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|
Term
| What are examples and movements of gliding joints? |
|
Definition
| Ankle, inversion and eversion. |
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|
Term
| What are examples and movements of hinge joints? |
|
Definition
| Knee and elbow, flexion and extension in one plane. |
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|
Term
| What are examples and movements of pivot joints? |
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Definition
| Atlas/axis, rotation around central axis. |
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|
Term
| What are examples and movements of saddle joints? |
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Definition
| Thumb, flexion, entension, abduction, adduction, circumduction, and opposition. |
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|
Term
| Bony surfaces are covered with what? (synovial joints) |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What surrounds a synovial joint? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inner surfaces of the joint cavity are lined with what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of synovial fluid? |
|
Definition
| to provide lubrication to the joint. |
|
|
Term
| Some synovial joints, such as the knee, contain what? |
|
Definition
| fibrocartilaginous disks (i.e. menisci) |
|
|
Term
| What reduce friction and act as shock absorbers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The outer layer that separates the muscle from surrounding tissues and organs. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The central layer that divides the muscle into compartments called fascicles. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The inner layer that surrounds each muscle fiber. |
|
|
Term
| What controls each skeletal muscle fiber? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What comprises a motor unit? |
|
Definition
| A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers that it innervates. |
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|
Term
| Where does communication between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber occur? |
|
Definition
| At the neuromuscular junction. |
|
|
Term
| Where does each axon of the motor neuron end? |
|
Definition
| at a synaptic knob containing the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) |
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|
Term
| What separates the synaptic knob from the sarcolemma of the skeletal muscle fiber? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is the part of the motor end plate that contains chemically gated sodium channels and membrane receptors that bind ACh. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The cytoplasm of the muscle cell. (look up "cytoplasm") |
|
|
Term
| What are transverse tubules? (or T-tubules) |
|
Definition
| A network of extensions of the sarcolemma. |
|
|
Term
| With what do the T-tubules communicate? |
|
Definition
| the sarcoplasmic reticulum. |
|
|
Term
| What does the sarcoplasmic reticulum do? |
|
Definition
| stores calcium in special sacs called terminal cisternae. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They are contained in myofibrils, and the consist of the contractile proteins actin and myosin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They are repeating functional units of the myofilaments. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They are the intersections of actin and myosin during muscle contraction, which results in a shortening of the sarcomeres. |
|
|
Term
| What does tropomyosin do? |
|
Definition
| It covers the actin bridging site during resting condition. It is attached to troponin. |
|
|
Term
| What else do tropomyosin and troponin do? |
|
Definition
| They regulate bridging of actin and myosin for muscle contraction and relaxation. |
|
|
Term
| How are muscles classified? |
|
Definition
Agonist (prime mover) Antagonist (prime mover that opposes the agonist) Synergist ( assists the prime mover, but is not the primary muscle in the movement) |
|
|
Term
| In the upper body, identification and palpation of what four muscles are of particular importance to exercise testing? |
|
Definition
| The sternocleidomastoid (look up), pectoralis major, biceps brachii, and triceps brachii. |
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|
Term
| In the lower body, identification and palpation of what three muscles are of particular importance to exercise testing? |
|
Definition
| The gluteus maximus, quadriceps femoris, and gastrocnemius. |
|
|
Term
| What is the inguinal crease? |
|
Definition
| The natural diagonal crease in the skin formed where the musculature of the thigh meets the pelvic girdle. |
|
|
Term
| Where are the atria in the heart? |
|
Definition
| Superior to the ventricles. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the coronary sulcus? |
|
Definition
| It marks the border between the atria and ventricles. |
|
|
Term
| When the atria are not filled with blood, what are they called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do ventricles have thicker muscular walls than atria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the interventricular sulcus? |
|
Definition
| It marks the boundary between the left and right ventricles. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It lies inferiorly at the tip of the heart. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the right atrium receive blood from? |
|
Definition
| The systemic circulation through the superior and inferior venae cavae. |
|
|
Term
| ________ _____ return venous blood from the myocardium to the ________ _____, which opens into the right atrium. |
|
Definition
| Coronary veins, coronary sinus. |
|
|
Term
| How does each atrium communicate with the ventricle on its own side? |
|
Definition
| Through an atrioventricular (AV) valve. |
|
|
Term
| What is the right AV valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the left AV valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| By what is each cusp braced? |
|
Definition
| chordae tendinae, which are connected to papillary muscles. |
|
|
Term
| What are the differences between the pulmonic and aortic valves? |
|
Definition
| unoxygenated blood leave the right ventricle and flows through the pulmonic. oxygenated blood leaves the left ventricle and flows through the aortic valve. |
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|
Term
| Blood from the periphery flows through the heart according to the following sequence: |
|
Definition
| superior and inferior venae cavae, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic semilunar valve, pulmonary arteries, and lungs. |
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|
Term
| Blood from the lungs flows through the heart according to the following sequence: |
|
Definition
| left pulmonary vein, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic semilunar valve, ascending aorta, and systemic circulation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| muscular-walled vessels that carry blood away from the heart, decrease progressively in size to become arterioles, and then connect to capillaries. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| vessels composed of one cell layer that functions to exchange nutrients and wast materials between the blood and tissues. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Vessels that carry blood toward the heart, and they are classified according to size. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Small veins that carry blood toward the heart, and are classified according to size. |
|
|
Term
| What does the heart use to circulate oxygenated blood? |
|
Definition
| arteries, arterioles, and capillaries. |
|
|
Term
| What does the upper respiratory tract consist of? |
|
Definition
| The nose, pharynx, and larynx |
|
|
Term
| What does the lower respiratory tract consist of? |
|
Definition
| the trachea and lungs, which include the bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli. |
|
|
Term
| What do the lungs occupy, and what are they covered by? |
|
Definition
| Pleural cavities, pleural membrane. |
|
|
Term
| What three distinct lobes does the right lung have? |
|
Definition
| superior, middle, and inferior. |
|
|
Term
| What two distinct lobes does the left lung have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does to apex of each lung extend? |
|
Definition
| into the base of the neck above the first rib. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the base of each lung rest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The respiratory muscle that separates the thoracic from the abdominopelvic cavities. |
|
|
Term
| How does air enter the respiratory system? |
|
Definition
| Through two external nares (I'm assuming the nose and the mouth), and proceeds through the nasal cavity and sinuses. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to air before it enters the nasopharynx at the internal nares? |
|
Definition
| It is warmed, filtered, and moistened. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They line the nasal cavity and function to sweep mucus and to trap microorganisms. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to air before it enters the nasopharynx at the internal nares? |
|
Definition
| It is warmed, filtered, and moistened. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They line the nasal cavity and function to sweep mucus and to trap microorganisms. |
|
|
Term
| After air enters the nasopharynx, where does it proceed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does the pharynx extend? |
|
Definition
| between the internal nares, and to the larynx and esophagus. |
|
|
Term
| Where does air leaving the pharynx pass through? |
|
Definition
| a narrow opening in the larynx called the glottis. |
|
|
Term
| From the larynx, where does incoming air enter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What functions do C-shaped cartilages perform? |
|
Definition
| The protect, support, and maintain an open airway, to prevent overexpansion of the respiratory system, and to allow large masses of food to pass along the esophagus. |
|
|
Term
| Air enters the lungs via the... |
|
Definition
| tracheobronchial tree, which consists of the bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli. |
|
|
Term
| The trachea branches to form what? |
|
Definition
| The right and left primary bronchi. |
|
|
Term
| each primary brochus enters a lung and branches into what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What supply air to the lobules of the lung? |
|
Definition
| terminal bronchioles, which are the smallest branches. |
|
|
Term
| Of what do the lobules consist? |
|
Definition
| Alveolar ducts and alveoli, where actual gas exchange occurs. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is knowledge of basic surface anatomy essential? |
|
Definition
| For the assessment of pulse rate and blood pressure, obtaining anthropometric measurements, determining ECG lead placements, and performing CPR and emergency defibrillation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A measurement of heart rate. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three most common places to measure the pulse? |
|
Definition
| cartoid artery, brachial artery, and radial artery. |
|
|
Term
| of what is the assessment of systemic arterial blood pressure and indirect measurement? |
|
Definition
| the pressure inside an artery. |
|
|
Term
| Where and with what is blood pressure usually measured? |
|
Definition
| in the arm over the brachial artery, medial to the biceps tendon, using a sphygmomanometer and a stethoscope. |
|
|
Term
| where are the nine places to measure skinfolds? |
|
Definition
| Chest, midaxillary, abdominal, suprailiac, subscapular, triceps, biceps, thigh, and medial calf. |
|
|
Term
| where is midaxillary skinfold measurement done? |
|
Definition
| underneath the armpit at the level of the xiphoid process. |
|
|
Term
| where is the subscapular skinfold measurement done? |
|
Definition
| diagonally 1 to 2 inches inferior to the scapula |
|
|
Term
| where is the suprailiac skinfold measurement done? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are body width measurements done? |
|
Definition
| using spreading calipers, sliding calipers, or an anthropometer. |
|
|
Term
| What are common sites for body width measurement? |
|
Definition
| elbow, biacromial (distance between the acromion process), knee, and bi-iliac (distance between the iliac crests). |
|
|
Term
| How many electrodes does the standard 12-lead system use? |
|
Definition
| 10, 4 limb and 6 precordial |
|
|
Term
| Where are the limb electrodes placed? |
|
Definition
| Right arm, and left arm, right leg and left leg. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The study of the forces and torques affecting movement and the description of the resulting movement. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It can be thought of as a push or a pull that either produces or has the capacity to produce a change in motion of a body. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When multiple forces from multiple directions act on a body, the sum of these forces is the net force which determines the resulting change in motion. |
|
|
Term
| What is the law of inertia? |
|
Definition
| A body will maintain its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless acted on by an external force. |
|
|
Term
| What is the law of acceleration? |
|
Definition
| It states that the acceleration of a body resulting from an applied force will be proportional to the magnitude of the applied force, in thedirection of the applied force, and inversely proportional to the moss of the body. a=F/m. |
|
|
Term
| What is the low of reaction? |
|
Definition
| For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. |
|
|
Term
| How are the forces influencing movement classified? |
|
Definition
| reaction, friction, and muscular. |
|
|
Term
| What is ground reaction force? |
|
Definition
| It is in accordance with Newton's law of reaction. The ground applies an equal and opposite force to the body as the body applies a force to the ground. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three directions that ground reaction forces are measured in? |
|
Definition
| Vertical, anteroposterior, and mediolateral. |
|
|
Term
| What is frictional force influenced by? |
|
Definition
The nature and interaction of the contacting surfaces and the force pressing the surfaces together.
Ff=mN (m=the coefficent of friction, N=the normal force) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The rotary effect of force produced by a muscle or group of muscles. |
|
|
Term
| What is the Center of Gravity? |
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Definition
| the point of exact center around which the body freely rotates, the point around which body weight is equal on all sides, and the point of intersection of the three cardinal body planes. |
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Term
| What is the base of support? |
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Definition
| the area of contact between the body and the supporting surface. |
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Term
| How is balance maintained? |
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Definition
| when the COG remains over the BOS. |
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Term
| How is stability maintained? |
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Definition
| When the COG falls within the BOS |
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Term
| What is rotation of a segment of the body dependent on? |
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Definition
| The magnitude of force exerted by the effort force and the resistance force, and the distance these two forces are from the axis of rotation. |
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Term
| What kinds of motion are there? |
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Definition
| translatory motion, rotary motion, velocity, and momentum |
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Term
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Definition
| The mathematical product of the mass and velocity of a moving object. |
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Term
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Definition
| A rigid bar that revolves around a fixed point or axis (fulcrum). Levers are used with force to overcome a resistance. |
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Term
| What are the three parts of a lever? |
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Definition
| The axis, force arm, and resistance arm? |
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Term
| What is a first-class lever? |
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Definition
| Axis is between force and resistance. |
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Term
| What is a second-class lever? |
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Definition
| resistance is between force and axis and the force is greater than the resistance. |
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Term
| What is a third-class lever? |
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Definition
| the effort force lies closer to the axis of the lever than the resistance, and the force arm is smaller than the resistance arm. |
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Term
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Definition
| The time between successive ground contacts of the same foot. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| How much of the gait cycle is in stance, and how much is in swing? |
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Definition
| 60% in stance, 40% in swing. |
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Term
| What is the typical walking speed in adults? |
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Definition
| 1.5m/s. Decreases in walking speed occur with aging, injury, and disease. |
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Term
| How much pelvic movement is done when walking? |
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Definition
| approximately 5cm on each side. |
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Term
| What are the subdivisions of the stance phase? |
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Definition
| 1) Heel Strike 2) Foot Flat 3) Midstance 4) Heel off 5) Toe Off |
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Term
| What are the subdivisions of the swing phase? |
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Definition
| 1) Initial swing (acceleration). 2) Midswing 3) Terminal Swing (deceleration) |
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Term
| What are common causes of gait abnormalities? |
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Definition
| Muscular weakness and neurologic disorders. |
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Term
| What examples of muscular weakness are mentioned in the chapter? |
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Definition
1) Weakness in the gluteus maximus. 2) Weakness in the gluteus minimus and medius. 3) Severe weakness in the plantarflexors. 4) Dorsiflexor insufficiency. 5) Weakness of the quadriceps femoris. |
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Term
| What examples of neurologic disorders are mentioned? |
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Definition
| hemiplegia, and parkinsonism. |
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Term
| Why does running require greater balance? |
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Definition
| because of the absence of a double support period. |
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Term
| Why does running require greater muscle strength? |
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Definition
| Because of many muscles contracting more rapidly and with greater force. |
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Term
| Why does running require greater range of motion? |
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Definition
| because of greater joint angles at the extremes of the movement. |
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Term
| What else is true about running? |
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Definition
1) The direction of the driving force is more horizontal and the stride is longer. 2) The body has a greater forward incline. 3) Rotary actions of the spine and pelvic regions are increased. 4) Arm actions are higher and more vigorous. 5) Stride length and frequency are increased. 6) There is a flight phase. |
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Term
| At running speeds up to 6 m/s, vertical ground reaction forces are what? |
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Definition
| between two and threefold the body weight. |
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Term
| What is buoyancy dependent on? |
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Definition
| the percentage of weight composed of bone and muscle. |
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Term
| What is true according to Archimede's principle? |
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Definition
| A body immersed in fluid is buoyed up with a force equal to the weight of the displaced fluid. |
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Term
| What is the "power position" in lifting? |
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Definition
1) Knees slightly bent 2) Body bent forward from the hips. 3) Back straight. 4) Chest and head upright. |
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