Term
What are two ways that a causative agent may cause disease? |
|
Definition
1. By producing toxic substances 2. By destroying parts of the cells that they've invaded. |
|
|
Term
| Where do normal flora originate? |
|
Definition
| In a specific body area; referred to as "normal" flora for that area |
|
|
Term
| What type of relationship develops when a host is exposed repeatedly to a pathogen, but is never successful in eliminating it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do carriers differ from individuals who actually develop an infectious disease? |
|
Definition
| Carriers are asymptomatic |
|
|
Term
| What type of pathogen uses parts of the host's tissues as nutrients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the average rate of reproduction for bacterial cells? |
|
Definition
| They divide every 30 to 120 minutes |
|
|
Term
| What physical characteristics of bacteria are used to determine their classifications? |
|
Definition
| Size, shape, and attachements. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three basic bacterial shapes? |
|
Definition
1.Spherical 2. rod-shaped 3.spiral-shaped |
|
|
Term
| What type of organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List three useful functions of fungi. |
|
Definition
1.Some are edible(mushrooms) 2.some are involved in the fermentation of breads and alcoholic beverages 3.Some produce antibiotics, such as penicillin |
|
|
Term
| List the components of the chain of infection. |
|
Definition
-Causative agent -reservoir -portal of exit -mode of transmission -portal of entry -susceptible host |
|
|
Term
| What are the normal exit portals for infectious agents? |
|
Definition
-The respiratory tract -the gastrointestinal tract -skin and mucous membranes |
|
|
Term
| Describe indirect contact. |
|
Definition
| When you touch objects such as forks, spoons, coffee cups, and medical equipment that are contaminated with an infectious agent. |
|
|
Term
| Describe droplet transmission. |
|
Definition
| Transmitted through the air by a person coughing, sneezing, or talking. |
|
|
Term
| What are the stages of an infectious disease? |
|
Definition
-Incubation -Prodromal -Illness -Convalescence |
|
|
Term
| How much can the prodromal period vary for different diseases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An inflammation of the liver that is caused by bacteria, viruses, protozoa, helminths, chemicals, or drugs. |
|
|
Term
| What is meningitis, and what is the most serious type? |
|
Definition
Inflammation of the meninges, covering of the brain and/or spinal cord. -Bacterial meningitis is the most serious. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of Meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe the AIDS disease and the virus known to cause it. |
|
Definition
Used to describe a group of symptoms that usually result from an infection with a virus. The cause is a retrovirus known as HIV. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common/serious complication of gonorrheal infections in women? |
|
Definition
| Gonorrheal pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) |
|
|
Term
| List the 5 stages of syphilis. |
|
Definition
1.primary 2.secondary 3.latent 4.late 5.congenital |
|
|
Term
| What directive discusses how reportable disease lists must be updated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does a physician notify Public Health of a reportable disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who ensures civilian agencies are notified of reportable diseases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the term "asepsis" mean? |
|
Definition
| The state of being free of pathogenic microorganisms |
|
|
Term
| What is another term use for medical asepsis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is another term use for surgical asepsis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What procedure is designed to destroy pathogens, but usually does not affect spores? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between disinfectants and antiseptics? |
|
Definition
| Disinfectants are substances used to destroy pathogenic organisms on inanimate objects. Antiseptics are substances that inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two recommended tiers of isolation precautions developed by the Centers for Disease Control? |
|
Definition
-Standard precautions -Transmission-based precautions |
|
|
Term
| Why were standard precautions developed? |
|
Definition
| To aid in breaking the infection chain |
|
|
Term
| When is it important to use masks, goggles, or face shields? |
|
Definition
| When splattering or splashing of blood or body fluids is possible |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of transmission-based precautions? |
|
Definition
1. Airborne 2. Droplet 3. Contact |
|
|
Term
| Describe how to reduce the risk of spreading infectious agents by the "airborne" route. |
|
Definition
-Place pt in a private room, which has monitored, negative air pressure -Keep door closed -Wear protective respiratory equipment (mask) |
|
|
Term
| If droplet precautions are in effect, when should you wear a mask? |
|
Definition
| When you're within 3 feet of the pt |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of isolation precautions? |
|
Definition
To prevent the spread of microorganisms among patients, personnel, and visitors. |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 reasons nonmedical individuals contaminate themselves when attempting to deal with isolation? |
|
Definition
-Some refuse to believe they can be contaminated, so they ignore the precautions -Some don't understand what they are supposed to do and become contaminated not knowing it -Some are illiterate so they don't understand the precautions |
|
|
Term
| Why do medical staff members violate isolation principles? |
|
Definition
-They get in a hurry and try to take shortcuts -They don't understand how to follow the precautions -They think the precautions don't really apply to them |
|
|
Term
| Under what conditions can a roommate be placed with an isolation patient? |
|
Definition
| If they are both infected with the same disorder OR if both pt's are cooperative, understand the infectious process, and have been taught how to use the isolation techniques. |
|
|
Term
| Why are contaminated articles bagged before they are taken out of the isolation unit? |
|
Definition
| To prevent contamination of the general environment and other people. |
|
|
Term
| Define routine and terminal cleaning. |
|
Definition
Routine cleaning is done everyday (wiping up spills, damp mopping floors, vacuuming..etc) Terminal cleaning is primarily toward objects that the pt has actually been in contact with. |
|
|
Term
| What additional precautions should be taken with cleaning equipment if the patient's condition requires a private room? |
|
Definition
| Equipment should be disinfected with an approved solution before going to another room |
|
|
Term
| How is the solution that is used for terminal cleaning selected? |
|
Definition
| Selected by your local infection control committee according to Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)standards. |
|
|
Term
| What should infectious patients wear when they are being transported through the hospital? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is a private room the most effective type of isolation unit? |
|
Definition
| The pt is physically separated from other patients, and personnel are more apt to remember to wash their hands,etc., before going on to other pt's. |
|
|
Term
| How do masks protect the wearer? |
|
Definition
They protect the wearer from inhaling large particle aerosols (droplets). They might also prevent personnel from touching their mucous membranes and contaminating themselves. |
|
|
Term
| When should you put on and take off a mask? |
|
Definition
| Put it on before you enter the room and take it off before you leave. |
|
|
Term
| For what reasons are gloves worn? |
|
Definition
-To provide a protective barrier and prevent gross contamination of the hands when touching blood, body fluids, secretions,excretions mucous membranes, and nonintact skin -To reduce the liklihood of microorganisms being transmitted during sterile procedures; and to reduce transmission of microorganisms to other patients. |
|
|
Term
| What should you do with disposable equipment when it becomes contaminated? |
|
Definition
| It should be bagged, labeled, and disposed of according to local policy. |
|
|
Term
| What should you do with an isolation patient's food tray? |
|
Definition
| No special precautions are needed; hospital diswashers are capable of decontaminating dishes. |
|
|
Term
| What general tasks are included in the sterilization process? |
|
Definition
| Cleaning, disinfecting, wrapping, and sterilizing. |
|
|
Term
| List 3 examples of semicritical items. |
|
Definition
1. Fiber-optic endoscopes 2. endotracheal tubes 3. Cystoscopes |
|
|
Term
| What factors determine the cleaning method to be used for equipment? |
|
Definition
-Local policy -Type of object to be cleaned -Amount and type of organic material on the object |
|
|
Term
| When cleaning equipment, what things should you do to prevent self-contamination? |
|
Definition
| Always wear gloves, eye protection, and adhere to locally required protection. |
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe ultrasonic cleaning. |
|
Definition
| An ultrasonic device cleans by passing ultrasonic waves through a fluid. This produces submicroscopic bubbles, which collapse and pull dirt from objects by suction. |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 types of disinfection? |
|
Definition
1. Pasteurization 2.Exposure to chemical germicides 3. Ultraviolet irradiation. |
|
|
Term
| For what purpose is low-level disinfection useful? |
|
Definition
| General cleaning purposes |
|
|
Term
| What type of disinfection is done by placing small items in boiling water for a specified period of time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What special precaution must you take when using ultraviolet irradiation? |
|
Definition
| Wear protective garments such as, gown, gloves, and protective glasses. |
|
|
Term
| What characteristics should wrapping material for sterile packs have? |
|
Definition
| Wrapper must be constructed so that it allows the sterilizing agent to enter and leave, but does not allow microorganisms or dust particles to enter. It must be durable enough to withstand conditions in the sterilizer and in storage, and it must provide physical protection for delicate items. Wrapper must also be flexible enough to adapt to the shape of the object and allow the package to be opened without contaminating the contents. Finally, wrapper must be cost-effective. |
|
|
Term
| Why should you avoid adding extra supplies or equipment to a sterile pack? |
|
Definition
| Sterile packs are designed for one-time use. Adding materials is a waste of time and space. |
|
|
Term
| Which wrapping method is used for most packages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should you avoid using pins, clips, or staples to secure sterile packages? |
|
Definition
| Such objects make holes in the wrapper through which microorganisms can enter. |
|
|
Term
| What type of instrument should you use to label a sterile package? |
|
Definition
| Indelible-ink, felt-tipped marker |
|
|
Term
| What information should be included on the label? |
|
Definition
-The contents of the package, the preparer's initials, preparing date, designation for receiving unit, sterilization control number, and expiration date. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 basic methods of sterilization? |
|
Definition
Physical agents chemical agents ionizing radiation |
|
|
Term
| Which method of sterilization includes gravity desplacement sterilizers, prevacuum sterilizers, and washer-sterilizers? |
|
Definition
| Pressurized steam sterilizers |
|
|
Term
| When does a steam sterilizer begin timing the actual sterilization cycle? |
|
Definition
| when all the air is removed and the heat reaches a preset point. |
|
|
Term
| What are disadvantages of steam sterilizers? |
|
Definition
| They use great amounts of heat and cannot be used for many delicate items made of plastic or rubber. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary function of washer-sterilizers? |
|
Definition
| to decontaminate/terminally sterilize used instruments after a procedure or operation. |
|
|
Term
| How should packages be arranged in an ethylene oxide sterilizer? |
|
Definition
| To allow full penetration of the gas to all surfaces. |
|
|
Term
| What are some advantages of ethylene oxide sterilizers? |
|
Definition
-It is effective against all microorganisms -It is noncorrosive and can be used for items that are too delicate for heat or steam sterilization. -Readily available -Penetrates dry material easily -Eliminates the need for high pressure, humidity, and temperature. |
|
|
Term
| For what purpose is ionizing radiation primarily used? |
|
Definition
| Bulk sterilization of commercial products |
|
|
Term
| Organisms that cause infection and disease are called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which term is used to describe the host's ability to develop a tolerance for the invading organism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which term is used to describe the measurement of the pathogenicity or ability of the organism to invade host tissues, withstand defenses and cause infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Infectious agents, which are primitive one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly are called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The classification of organisms responsible for the disease Rocky Mountain spotted fever is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The classification of organisms known to cause the disease malaria is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what organism harbors or allows an agent to grow and reproduce? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The stage of infection when systemic and localized symptoms appear is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hepatitis is best defined as inflammation of the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What communicable diseases are readily transmitted by casual contact and are difficult to control or prevent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Air Force uses the Enzyme-Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA) and Western Blot tests to detect |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Report communicable diseases to which office? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which office is responsible for preparing a list of reportable diseases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by |
|
Definition
| Completing an AF Form 570, Notification of Patient's Medical Status. |
|
|
Term
| Which medical term means the freedom of infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all microorganisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which substance is used to reduce the number of microorganisms on living tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Medical aseptic handwashing is done to |
|
Definition
| protect patients, co-workers and self. |
|
|
Term
| Surgical aseptic handwashing is done to prevent infecting |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why were transmission based precautions developed by the Centers for Disease Control? |
|
Definition
| Prevent the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organism's known method of transmission. |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 types of transmission-based precautions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored negative air pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients who are highly susceptible to infection are placed in which of the types of isolation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department? |
|
Definition
| Put a gown,mask, and gloves on the patient; alert personnel, then transport. |
|
|
Term
| Which guideline should you follow when providing postmortem care to a patient who was in isolation? |
|
Definition
| Use the same precautions that you used when the patient was alive. |
|
|
Term
| An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When should sterile gloves rather than non-sterile gloves be worn when working with a patient in isolation? |
|
Definition
| When doing a sterile procedure |
|
|
Term
| Which sterilization classification refers to instruments or objects introduced directly into the boodstream? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which sterilization classification is applied to equipment used to perform a fiberoptic endoscope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first step when preparing objects for sterilization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
High-level disinfection will destroy all of the following except: -bacteria -viruses -fungi -spores |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Under the time related(traditional) method,which locally sterilized package would have a shelf life of 6 months? |
|
Definition
| Items in "peel-packed" wrapper |
|
|
Term
| What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method? |
|
Definition
| When package integrity is compromised |
|
|
Term
| Which method of sterilization is preferable for items that are delicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is heat lost from the body? |
|
Definition
| Through the processes of conduction, convection, radiation, and evaporation. |
|
|
Term
| How do you obtain relative skin temperature on a patient? |
|
Definition
| By observing a patient and feeling his or her forehead. |
|
|
Term
What are the advantages of using glass thermometers? |
|
Definition
-They are the most flexible approach to temp assessment -They are not affected by moisture or power outages -They are extremely accurate as long as they are used correctly |
|
|
Term
| What method of temperature assessment should be reserved for general assessment purposes, or as a last resort? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What aspect of electronic thermometers minimizes the risk of contamination? |
|
Definition
| The disposable probe covers |
|
|
Term
| What are the disadvantages associated with the use of chemical dot thermometers? |
|
Definition
| The instability of them and the fact thay they can't be used for rectal temperatures. |
|
|
Term
| What causes the expansion and contraction of the arterial wall (pulse)? |
|
Definition
| Expansion occurs because of the increase in bloodflow that occurs when the left ventricle contracts. Contraction occurs when the flow returns to normal. |
|
|
Term
| Why is the carotid artery preferred for pulse checks in emergency situations? |
|
Definition
| It is easily accessible, has a very strong pulse, and persists when the stroke volume is too low to palpate peripheral pulses. |
|
|
Term
| Where would you place the diaphragm of the stethoscope if you were trying to auscultate an apical pulse? |
|
Definition
| Near the level of the fourth or fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, or just beneath the left nipple. |
|
|
Term
| What type of pulse irregularity may be associated with increased intracranial pressure, excessive vomiting, or tracheal suctioning? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pulse characteristic is associated with conduction abnormalities such as atrial fibrillation and premature ventricular contractions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of respiration? |
|
Definition
| Quality, rate,depth, and pattern. |
|
|
Term
| What can you determine about a patient's respiratory effort if he or she insists on remaining in a sitting or standing position and there appears to be an excessive amount of chest movement during respirations? |
|
Definition
| The patient is experiencing dyspnea and is in respiratory distress. |
|
|
Term
| What disease may produce rales? |
|
Definition
Pulmonary edema Pulmonary fibrosis Pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| How would a brain tumor affect a patient's respiratory rate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does hypoventilation affect the carbon dioxide supply of the blood? |
|
Definition
| It can lead to excessive retention of carbon dioxide in the blood |
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe the Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern. |
|
Definition
| It's characterized by cycles in which the respirations gradually increase and then decrease in rate and depth. These cycles alternate with short periods of apnea. At their longest, the respirations may last up to 30 to 45 seconds. The periods of apnea usually last 20 seconds or less. |
|
|
Term
| What breathing pattern is associated with metabolic acidosis and renal failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of sputum is produced by a patient with a pulmonary infection or pneumonia? |
|
Definition
| Thick, green, purulent sputum |
|
|
Term
| What is diastolic pressure? |
|
Definition
| The level of pressure in the arteries during relaxtion of the heart, or rather when the heart is at rest. |
|
|
Term
| What condition frequently is characterized by rising systolic pressures and stable or falling diastolic pressures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of reading will be produced if the BP cuff is too big? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the procedure for palpating the blood pressure. |
|
Definition
| Palpate either the brachial or the radial pulse as you inflate the cuff, and continue to inflate the cuff for approx another 30mm Hg after the pulse disappears. Continue to palpate for the pulse as you slowly deflate the cuff. The point where the pulse reappears is the systolic pressure. |
|
|
Term
| In what positions should the patient be placed while taking orthostatic vital signs? |
|
Definition
| Lying, sitting, and standing |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 possible treatments for postural/orthostatic hypotension? |
|
Definition
| Intravenous therapy or blood transfusion therapy |
|
|
Term
| Nuerologic checks is performed at regular intervals on patients who may have.. |
|
Definition
| a head injury or who have had brain surgery |
|
|
Term
| What is consensual reflex? |
|
Definition
| When either pupils get smaller when either eye is stimulated with light |
|
|
Term
| How will pupils react when viewing far objects? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does an oximetry machine measure? |
|
Definition
| Arterial hemoglobin oxygen saturation |
|
|
Term
| What medical diagnosis will cause a pulse oximeter to give false high readings? |
|
Definition
| Carbon Monoxide poisioning |
|
|
Term
| Peak expiratory flow is also referred to as what? |
|
Definition
| Expiratory Reserve Volume |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 most useful purposes of the pulmonary function test? |
|
Definition
| Evaluating losses in respiratory function and following the course of certain respiratory diseases. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the 4 respiratory capacities represents the total amount of exchangeable air? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define anatomical dead space. |
|
Definition
| The volume of the conducting respiratory passageways (area in and around the nose,pharynx,larynx,trachea, and bronchial tree) which fills with inspired air but never contributes to gas exchange in the alveoli. |
|
|
Term
| Before administering the PFT, what information must you find out from the patient that may have an effect on the test? |
|
Definition
| If your pt has smoked, eaten, or has recently had a respiratory tract infection. |
|
|
Term
| How long must an examinee blow into the PFT machine before a tracing can be considered acceptable? |
|
Definition
| For at least 5 seconds, or until an obvious plateau in the volume-time curve has occured. |
|
|
Term
| When using the appropriate nomogram to determine predicted values, what 2 factors must be known? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must you do to the predicted FEV and FVC values for non-caucasian examinees and why? |
|
Definition
| Multiply them by 0.85; to adjust for the lower(15 % difference) predicted normals. |
|
|
Term
| What initiates electrical impulses in the heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Explain the progression of the electrical impulse through the heart. |
|
Definition
| Intiating in the SA node, the electrical impulse passes through the AV node down the Bundle of His to the left and right bundle branches, and then through the Purkinje fibers which terminate in the ventricular walls. |
|
|
Term
| Where in the heart is the Purkinje fiber network most elaborate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What the 3 destinguishable waves of an ECG called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the QRS complex represent? |
|
Definition
| Ventricular depolarization |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Any artificial products or features that appear on and ECG tracing and can render the tracing invalid. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Any variation from the normal electrical rate and/or sequence of cardiac activities. |
|
|
Term
| When applying limb leads on the fleshy portion of an extremity, where must you ensure that the electrodes do not lie? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| By measuring the various waves, complexes, interval, and electrical voltage, what can a trained person determine from an ECG? |
|
Definition
| The rate, rhythm, and axis of the hear, along w/ any evidence of myocardial hypertrophy or infarction. |
|
|
Term
| How many pounds are in one kilogram? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Of the two methods used to measure standing height, which is most prefered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should the patient's hips, knees, and ankles be flexed while measuring a sitting height? |
|
Definition
| at 90 degrees and the lower legs dangling free |
|
|
Term
| What type of patient may have daily abdominal girth measurements? |
|
Definition
| A pt with cirrhosis of the liver or when internal bleeding may be suspected. |
|
|
Term
| For what type of patients are rectal temperatures contraindicated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When taking the rectal temp of an adult pt, how far into the rectum should the termometer be inserted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pulse point persists when stroke volume is low? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the anatomical location of the apex of the heart, which is used for auscultating the apical pulse? |
|
Definition
| Left side of the body, fourth or fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line. |
|
|
Term
| Which term is used to define difficult or painful breathing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Slow or irregular shallow respiration called hypoventilation can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbgon dioxide in the blood, which can result in a condition called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rapid, deep breathing, referred to as hyperventilation, depletes the carbon dioxide level in the blood and can result in a condition called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which breathing pattern is characterized by an increase in both depth and rate of respiration and is associated with metabolic acidosis and renal failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which sign, associated with the respiratory system, would be an indication of pulmonary edema? |
|
Definition
| Frothy, blood-tinged sputum |
|
|
Term
When performing a health history, which factor would you suspect did not contribute to a pt's hypertension? 1.Obesity 2.Regular Exercise 3.Diet high in Sodium 4. Post menopausal woman |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which blood pressure reading would be noticeable if a pt has suffered trauma to the head? |
|
Definition
| Rising systolic, falling diastolic |
|
|
Term
| What is another term for orthostatic hypotension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Neurological checks should be performed on a pt with suspected |
|
Definition
| Increased intracranial pressure |
|
|
Term
| A pulse oximetry machine can give false high reading when a pt being tested is suffering from |
|
Definition
| carbon monoxide poisioning |
|
|
Term
| Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the pt's oxygen saturaion (SaO2 oxygen saturation) falls below |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs during normal breathing is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when performing a pulmonary function test on a pt, according to Air Force standards, what is the minimum percentage standard for the predicted FEV or FVC? |
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Definition
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Term
| When performing a pulmonary function test on a pt, according to Air Force standards, what is the minimum percentage standard for the FEV/FVC ratio? |
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Definition
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Term
Before administering the pulmonary function test, ensure the pt has not |
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Definition
| smoked within the past hour |
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Term
| During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are |
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Definition
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Term
| Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate? |
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Definition
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Term
| Where do the electrical impulses terminate within the heart? |
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Definition
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Term
| Where is the Purkinje fiber network the most elaborate? |
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Definition
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Term
| Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called |
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Definition
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Term
| What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings? |
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Definition
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Term
| When you do an electrocardiogram, where do you place the V2 chest lead on the individual? |
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Definition
| Left side of sternum, fourth intercostal space |
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Term
| If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the |
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Definition
| USAF Central electrocardiogram library |
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Term
| When converting pounds to kilograms, one kilogram is equal to how many pounds? |
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Definition
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Term
| When taking an individual's measurements, standing height is recorded to the nearest |
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Definition
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Term
| A sitting height measurement is required on all |
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Definition
| flying training physicals |
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Term
| An individual's sitting height measurement is recorded to the nearest |
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Definition
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Term
| An individual's weight measurement is recorded to the nearest |
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Definition
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Term
| What is a girth measurement? |
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Definition
| Distance around a body part |
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Term
| Which symbol is used when recording a pulse on SF 511, Vital Sign Record? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which symbol is used when recording a temperature on SF 511, Vital Sign Record? |
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Definition
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Term
| What special test is used to detect occult blood in the urine? |
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Definition
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Term
| What test is used to determine the hydration level of the pt? |
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Definition
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Term
| If you find calculi when straining urine, what should you do? |
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Definition
| Save it and send it to the lab for analysis |
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Term
| Stool samples are obtained for what reasons? |
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Definition
Occult blood parasites fat other abnormalities |
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Term
| When performing a urine test, a sample w/ a specific gravity of 1.030 suggets that a pt is experiencing |
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Definition
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Term
| How much fecal material is required to send to the lab for a tool specimen? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which site is not recommended for skin puncture to obtain a blood sample? |
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Definition
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Term
| During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away? |
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Definition
| It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results |
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Term
| The normal fasting blood glucose level is |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the purpose of performing an "Allen Test" before performing an arterial blood gas test? (ABG) |
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Definition
| Ensure the ulnar artery can maintain a blood supply to the hand |
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Term
| What should you instruct a pt to do before coughing up a sputum culture? |
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Definition
| Rinse mouth with hot water |
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Term
| The rapid strep tests can only detect the presence of |
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Definition
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