Term
| Which healthcare providers foundi n the Air force medical facilities are authrorized to both treat and admit patients ? |
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Definition
| Military and civillian physicians, dentist, certified nurse midwives, physician assistants, and nurse practitioners. |
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Term
| Who is responsible for notifying the inpatient unit that a routine patient is being admitted ? |
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Definition
| the physician or physicians assistant. |
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Term
| what is the basic difference between a routine admission and a direct or newborn admission ? |
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Definition
| Because of the order in which procedures are carried out. |
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Term
| what two factors determine where the patient goes after finishing with the admissions and dispositions office ? |
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Definition
| patients condition and facility policy. |
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Term
| when are patients who are NOT eligable under the DEERS program treated/admitted to the air force medical facilities? |
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Definition
| emergency circumstances only. |
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Term
| what are two advantages of preadmissions ? |
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Definition
| waiting time and fustration associated with normal admission procedures. |
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Term
| when should you begin to assemble the inpatient record ? |
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Definition
| when the patient is on the way or your preaddmission patient is arriving. |
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Term
| Normally, what admission procedures are done by the admissions nurse and technician ? |
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Definition
| nursing medical history, patient evaluation, vital signs, and height and weight. |
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Term
| what two methods are used in inpatient units to help monitor the location of patients ? |
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Definition
| patient status board and sign out registers. |
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Term
| how are paraplegic patients transferred during aeromedical evacuation ? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| name three types of patient dispositions ? |
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Definition
| transfer, subsisting elsewhere, and discharge. |
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Term
| what air force instruction provides a list of forms to be assembled after the discharge of a patient ? |
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Definition
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Term
| what type of patient may have daily abdominal girth measurements ? |
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Definition
| patients with cirrhosis of the liver. |
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Term
| what is the OF 522 used for ? |
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Definition
Medical record-operative permit
document patient consent for a special procedure. |
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Term
What are three major goals during the preoperative period ?
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Definition
| prepare the patient mentally, physically, and spiritually. |
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Term
| why is a chest x-ray taken prior to surgery ? |
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Definition
| to rule out possible lung diesease. |
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Term
| what routine labs are frequently completed the day before surgery ? |
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Definition
| complete blood count (CBC) and a urinalysis. |
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Term
| what action must be taken once pre med has been given ? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| what are some typical procedures performed in "same day" surgery units ? |
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Definition
| myringotomy, odontectomy, cystoscopy. |
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Term
| What does PERRLA stand for ? |
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Definition
| Pupils equal round reactive to light and accomidation. |
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Term
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Definition
| in 225 cc units as pooled, fresh frozen, or single donor plasma. |
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Term
| Once the transfusion is initiated, how long should it run slowly ? |
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Definition
| for the first 15-30 minutes. |
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Term
| what is emergence delirium ? |
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Definition
| irrational behavior emerging from general anesthesia. |
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Term
| List three factors that can result in an orthapaedic problem. |
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Definition
| congenital, infectious disease, trauma problems. |
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Term
| what is a fracture that results from disease called ? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| what does the term crepitus mean ? |
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Definition
| noise heard when bones are moved. |
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Term
| define the term reduction. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| how is a closed reduction performed ? |
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Definition
| by manipulation and manual traction. |
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Term
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Definition
| surgical procedure to set, align, and stabalize a fracture. |
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Term
| What type of medication is given to reduce a fever ? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| how long is a tepid bath given ? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| what should not be used for a backrub on an elderly patient ? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| what is the difference between type I and type II diabetes ? |
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Definition
Type I is insulin dependent and has a sudden onset. most common in children and young adults.
Type II is non insulin dependent and normally develops after 40 years. |
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Term
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Definition
| partial or almost complete unconciousness. |
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Term
| what are the ABC's of observing and reporting the patients condition ? |
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Definition
| appearence, behavior, and conversation. |
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Term
| describe third degree child sexual abuse. |
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Definition
| consist of nudity disrobing, genital exposure, observation of child undressing, intimate kissing, fondling, and pornography. |
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Term
| when a child discloses that he/she was sexually abused, what type of attitude should you as a medic display ? |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of patient is not usually able to communicat effectively ? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| what is the relationship between your stability and your center of gravity ? |
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Definition
| stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your base of support. |
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Term
| where are your largest muscles located ? |
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Definition
| shoulders, upper arms, thighs, and hips |
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Term
| where should the stretcher be positioned if the patient is to be transferred by lifting ? |
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Definition
| 90 degree angle to the foot of the bed. |
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Term
| when do you serve patients who require the most assistance ? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| what method is used to explain the locations of foods to a blind patient ? |
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Definition
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Term
| what position is the patient placed in for the use of a nasgastric tube ? |
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Definition
| high fowlers. (patients upper half is between 60-90 degrees) |
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Term
| What term is used to denote feeding tubes ? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| how many minutes will it take to properly administer a tube feeding ? |
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Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
| introduction of a solution into the stomach through a tube amd the siphoning the solution back out. |
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Term
| how far into the urethra is the catheter inserted for the male patient ? |
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Definition
| 6-10 inches or until urine begins to flow for straight catheters and to the catheters bifurcation for the indwelling catheter. |
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Term
| how far into the urethra is the catheter inserted for the female patient ? |
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Definition
| 2-3 inches or until urine flow. |
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Term
| why do you pinch the tube prior to removing it ? |
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Definition
| to prevent air from entering the bladder. |
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Term
| what are two types of enemas ? |
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Definition
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Term
| what are three reasons for the use of cleansing enemas? |
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Definition
| relieve constipation, prepare for surgery, and prepare for diagnostic procedure. |
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Term
| what position is the patient placed in when administering an enema ? |
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Definition
| left lateral recumbent or on his or her back. |
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Term
| when giving a cleansing enema, howm any minutes should the solution be retatined ? |
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Definition
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Term
| when giving a retention enema, how high should the solution container be held above the rectum ? |
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Definition
| aproximately 12 inches above the rectum, no more than 18 inches. |
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Term
| what are retention enemas used for ? |
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Definition
| treat diseases of the rectum and lower colon, soften fecal matter or soothe an irritated colon or rectum, and administer medications. |
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Term
| what are two reasons for colostomy? |
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Definition
| establishing fecal control and keeping patient clean. |
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Term
| what is the most common reason for recieving a colostomy ? |
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Definition
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Term
| what term means the patient has a low oxygen content in the arterial blood ? |
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Definition
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Term
| hyperventilation can cause what type of acid-base imbalance ? |
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Definition
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Term
| hypoventilation can cause what type of acid-base imbalance ? |
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Definition
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Term
| what type of mask is used to administer inspired oxygen concentrations of 60-90 percent ? |
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Definition
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Term
| what type of mask is used when the patient needs low concentrations of oxygen, 24-50 percent ? |
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Definition
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Term
| how often are humidifiers changed ? |
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Definition
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