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3P071
Security Forces Craftsman CDC Upgrade - URE Review
269
Criminal Justice
Undergraduate 1
08/23/2012
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Term
When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?
 Definition
The first duty day following completion.
Term
The direction of flight operation during normal and contigency conditions is the responsibility of the flight
 Definition
chief.
Term
Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?
 Definition
SFM.
Term
The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior
 Definition
security force members.
Term
What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
 Definition
Internal SRT.
Term
What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
 Definition
External SRT.
Term
When a two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single-person
 Definition
security patrols.
Term
What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?
 Definition
Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas.
Term
Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary is the responsibility of the
 Definition
CBS.
Term
What does SEI stand for?
 Definition
Special experience identifier.
Term
The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify
 Definition
existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contigency requirements, or management needs.
Term
What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?
 Definition
Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.
Term
Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?
 Definition
Reports and analysis.
Term
Which regulation governs the security forces stan-eval program?
 Definition
AFI 36-2225
Term
What is one of the most valuable tools commander have at their fingertips?
 Definition
Feedback
Term
How many days does the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?
 Definition
30
Term
After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the section have to conduct reevaluation?
 Definition
15
Term
The MWD program does not provide security forces with the capability to
 Definition
detect classified information.
Term
Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?
 Definition
OUT and HEEL.
Term
When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of MWD?
 Definition
Detection.
Term
When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum usage?
 Definition
At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.
Term
What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?
 Definition
Location and size of area.
Term
What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?
 Definition
Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern.
Term
From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?
 Definition
Downwind.
Term
When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?
 Definition
Type and size of building.
Term
When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous
 Definition
psychological deterrent.
Term
Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?
 Definition
They should not be used often in daylight hours.
Term
When is the military working dog's detection ability more effective?
 Definition
During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions.
Term
While on a mobile patrol, where should the MWD be in the vehicle?
 Definition
Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle.
Term
If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog?
 Definition
Guard.
Term
Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?
 Definition
AF Forms 629 and 1297.
Term
When should unit personnel clean their weapons?
 Definition
After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed.
Term
What installations are required to have an ISP?
 Definition
All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan.
Term
Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction?
 Definition
Installation commander.
Term
What is not included in the ISP?
 Definition
A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment.
Term
The information security program permits the disclosure of classified information only to
 Definition
cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties.
Term
What is not a required storage procedure for Top Secret information?
 Definition
Two-person concept, guarding the material behind a locked door.
Term
Who may delegate authority to approve escorting or hand-carrying classified materials on commercial aircraft outside the United States, its territories, or Canada?
 Definition
Only MAJCOM commanders.
Term
When someone enters the Air Force, which security clearance investigation is performed?
 Definition
An ENTNAC.
Term
SSBIs are required for personnel requiring what clearance?
 Definition
Top Secret.
Term
The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to
 Definition
ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year.
Term
All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked, have emergency lights, sirens, and a
 Definition
public address system.
Term
All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have
 Definition
portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system.
Term
Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying
 Definition
voluntarily.
Term
Which code is not an alarm response code?
 Definition
4
Term
Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?
 Definition
Immediately secure the area.
Term
Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security?
 Definition
PL4
Term
What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the command "Open Ranks, MARCH"?
 Definition
The last element stands fast and automatically executes a dress right at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.
Term
During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, "Close Ranks, MARCH"?
 Definition
Upon departure of the inspecting official.
Term
Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is
 Definition
prepared to present a post briefing.
Term
As a leader and supervisor, you should avoid asking questions that could be open for
 Definition
argument.
Term
What is the unit flight schedule based on?
 Definition
Unit needs.
Term
Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound
 Definition
OPSEC practices.
Term
It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain
 Definition
proficiency.
Term
A post priority chart is a listing of your posts and patrols in order of
 Definition
precedence as outlined in the ISI.
Term
What is the publication reference for The Tongue and Quill?
 Definition
AFH 33-337.
Term
In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to meet?
 Definition
Simplicity and directness.
Term
Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
 Definition
HQ Air Force Security Forces Center.
Term
Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?
 Definition
Senior security forces NCOs.
Term
Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a specific duty position?
 Definition
Individual skills.
Term
Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene
 Definition
could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.
Term
The benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it allows
 Definition
the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery.
Term
Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not been involved in the preliminary investigation
 Definition
brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.
Term
At what point during a search do you establish your game plan?
 Definition
During the preliminary visual examination.
Term
Your choice of search method is determined by the intent of the search and by the
 Definition
area to be covered.
Term
What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?
 Definition
There is no time limit set on an interview.
Term
How many investigators should be present during a suspect interview?
 Definition
An interview is limited to two investigators.
Term
When questioning a juvenile, what action do you take if you cannot find a parent or the parent cannot respond in a timely manner?
 Definition
Seek SJA advice.
Term
What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect during an interview?
 Definition
Let another investigator conduct the interview.
Term
Which approach to questioning do you use for interviews when a subject is not willing or ready to provide information?
 Definition
Direct.
Term
An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a
 Definition
habitual offender.
Term
What is a confession?
 Definition
A complete acknowledgement of guilt of all elements of an offense.
Term
The personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,
 Definition
tact, poise, and self-confidence.
Term
What is not one of the three sources you can use when testifying in court?
 Definition
Tape recordings.
Term
Who must the controller keep informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each?
 Definition
Flight chief and flight commander.
Term
Other than making the situation worse, if the occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may have time to
 Definition
conceal evidence of a crime.
Term
What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?
 Definition
Calm, positive, and helpful.
Term
When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden movements or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be
 Definition
hiding an injured family member or a weapon.
Term
What is not an indication of child neglect?
 Definition
Signs of impoverishment.
Term
Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting a child are indicators of
 Definition
emotional maltreatment.
Term
It is important that you pay special attention to a crime victim who has experienced
 Definition
a serious violent crime.
Term
The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and responsibilities to the
 Definition
SJA.
Term
Who is responsible for ensuring the accomplishment of required training by all local agencies?
 Definition
LRO.
Term
On the battlefield, who retains the option for immediate use of lethal weapons when the on-scene commander deems it appropriate?
 Definition
United States.
Term
If any individual appears to be emotional, distraught, or stunned following any interview, to which person can the individual be released?
 Definition
Supervisor.
Term
Tying up loose ends and ensuring nothing was missed during an investigation is called
 Definition
a follow-up investigation.
Term
The member needs to develop an investigative strategy for conducting additional investigative steps of an incident when the member is
 Definition
reviewing and analyzing all previous reports prepared.
Term
What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation?
 Definition
Title 18, United States Code, and the US Constitution.
Term
The nuclear weapons mishap flag word "Dull Sword" identifies a nuclear weapons
 Definition
deficiency.
Term
Who is responsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident?
 Definition
Command post.
Term
In that direction should personnel withdraw from an accident site?
 Definition
Upwind or crosswind.
Term
Who is allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident?
 Definition
Key personnel.
Term
Who is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged violations of the United State Code that occur on DoD installations or within DoD facilities?
 Definition
FBI.
Term
From a hostage's standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most dangerous because this is when
 Definition
the hostage takers are still going though a panic reaction.
Term
The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the
 Definition
resource.
Term
The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is
 Definition
defeating level I threats and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.
Term
At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operation center (BDOC)?
 Definition
S2 and S3
Term
What is the staff make-up for the S3?
 Definition
The operations officer and staff.
Term
In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
 Definition
By service component or function.
Term
The primary mission oof a joint operation is to
 Definition
sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.
Term
When terrorists attack DoD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
 Definition
Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.
Term
A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
 Definition
state-supported.
Term
A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
 Definition
hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.
Term
Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
 Definition
23-30.
Term
When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
 Definition
Just before departing for the target sight.
Term
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
 Definition
bombing.
Term
The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?
 Definition
Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessmnet factors, and threat levels.
Term
What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
 Definition
Intentions
Term
Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
 Definition
operations security (OPSEC),
Term
The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to
 Definition
support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
Term
When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
 Definition
At the earliest possible moment.
Term
Which threat spectrum consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?
 Definition
II
Term
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
 Definition
Sympathizers.
Term
Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum?
 Definition
II
Term
Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of batallion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?
 Definition
III
Term
What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?
 Definition
Force protection (FP) working.
Term
Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an
 Definition
continual process.
Term
What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?
 Definition
Vulnerability.
Term
The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is
 Definition
protecting sensitive information.
Term
The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signatures is
 Definition
camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD).
Term
To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to
 Definition
disguise.
Term
The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities
 Definition
with a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DoD).
Term
Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include
 Definition
clandestine infiltration.
Term
Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage?
 Definition
Security.
Term
As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of
 Definition
deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time.
Term
What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contigency?
 Definition
72 hours
Term
What does security forces (SF) provide for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept?
 Definition
Foundation.
Term
Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all Airmen considered?
 Definition
Sensors.
Term
Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?
 Definition
Delay.
Term
What does the risk management process allow the commander to determine?
 Definition
Countermeasures options.
Term
An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations
 Definition
on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.
Term
What does the Air Force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF), as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?
 Definition
Five BGLs.
Term
The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is
 Definition
predictability.
Term
Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?
 Definition
QF.
Term
When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?
 Definition
Any level.
Term
What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?
 Definition
Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System (AFWUS).
Term
Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?
 Definition
Objective.
Term
Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?
 Definition
Simplicity.
Term
Commanders to not use rules of engagement (ROE) to ensure operations
 Definition
meet manning standards.
Term
Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the
 Definition
US military's standing rules of engagement (ROE).
Term
What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?
 Definition
Prevent unnecessary suffering.
Term
What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?
 Definition
Flexibility.
Term
What unit type code (UTC) is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces (SF) augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?
 Definition
QFDB9
Term
What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with UTCs, QFEBB, and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?
 Definition
QFEBA
Term
What unit type code (UTC) is composed of one home-station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler?
 Definition
QFEBR.
Term
What unit type code (UTC) consists of a 3-person team of specially trained and equipped security forces (SF) personnel, who deploy as mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) on airlift aircraft transiting or operating out of high-risk locations?
 Definition
QFEPR
Term
During peacetime operation, what unit type code (UTC) would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys, and defend local and other security missions as required?
 Definition
QFEB2
Term
What unit type code (UTC) is essential to direct the fire of and provide support for the mortar teams?
 Definition
QFEBK
Term
What pre-deployment factor is considered a constant?
 Definition
Treaties.
Term
How long are the majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?
 Definition
5 days.
Term
What is a base already possessing resources and an established infrastructure?
 Definition
Main operating base (MOB).
Term
What operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space?
 Definition
Intelligence.
Term
Fixed bases having well-established perimeters usually have limited
 Definition
depth.
Term
What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter, allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference?
 Definition
Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack.
Term
What is not an example of a routine in defense measure?
 Definition
Assign sectors of fire.
Term
What should always be your first priority of work?
 Definition
Establish local security.
Term
What should the defense force commander (DFC) consider in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources?
 Definition
The entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR).
Term
When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and areas are
 Definition
evenly grouped.
Term
What would necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field?
 Definition
When you have made contact with the enemy.
Term
Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?
 Definition
Peak of a roof.
Term
When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is the primary mission?
 Definition
Provide covering fire for the assault element.
Term
In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within how many meters of the element?
 Definition
800.
Term
Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in
 Definition
width and depth.
Term
What is the main mission of the machine gun?
 Definition
To protect and defend through cohesive and offensive missions.
Term
What does not need to be shown on a sketch?
 Definition
Location of home station flight.
Term
What provides key information to the defense force commander (DFC) and support staffs (S Staff) on specific air base defense (ABD) activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?
 Definition
Reports.
Term
What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire?
 Definition
Crew-served automatic weapons.
Term
When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as
 Definition
KILL ZONE.
Term
Which principle of indirect fire airms to destroy enemy soldiers and degreade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up?
 Definition
Required effect.
Term
Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should artillery be used when integrating suppresive fires to support the breach and assault?
 Definition
To isolate the objective.
Term
A "call for fire" is a message
 Definition
prepared by an observer.
Term
Against what threat levels can close precision engagement (CPE) add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces?
 Definition
II and III.
Term
Once fully implemented, what will the Integrated Base Defense Security System (IBDSS) greatly enhance in base defensive operations?
 Definition
Detection and security.
Term
Where is the best position for you to locate an observation post (OP)/listening post (LP)?
 Definition
In a position that doesn't draw attention.
Term
Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) teams are not equipped to
 Definition
indicate enemy location using flares.
Term
What placement allows for redundancy in observation and better sector coverage?
 Definition
In-depth.
Term
A relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as
 Definition
a search area.
Term
What three subordinate areas are search areas divided into?
 Definition
Personnel, vehicle, and reaction force.
Term
What are the two types of obstacles you may encounter?
 Definition
Existing and reinforcing.
Term
Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?
 Definition
Natural and structural.
Term
The environment for security forces (SF) personnel working in the entry control facilities (ECF) must be
 Definition
safe and comfortable.
Term
The immediate impression the entry control facility (ECF) must impart through its design is one of
 Definition
professionalism and commitment.
Term
You should make restricted areas as small as possible to eliminate the
 Definition
need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain.
Term
The authority for establishing a national defense area (NDA) is shown with
 Definition
a temporary sign.
Term
What information on a map is much like the instruction book that comes with a piece of equipment?
 Definition
Marginal.
Term
Which color, found on a map, represents man-made features?
 Definition
Black.
Term
On a map, what is represented by a solid blue line with a thin black line as the bank?
 Definition
A river.
Term
If a map shows contour lines on the opposite side of a hill so close that they almost appear as
 Definition
vertical/near vertical cliff.
Term
Which of the following is not one of the three types of contour lines shown on a Defense Mapping Agency map?
 Definition
Secondary.
Term
Which major terrain feature is a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground?
 Definition
Saddle.
Term
A short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge is called a
 Definition
spur.
Term
What are the two other grid systems that are used as the basis for the Military Grid Reference System?
 Definition
The universal transverse mercator and the universal polar stereographic.
Term
Plotting a six-digit grid coordinate will get you within how many meters of the point you wish to identify?
 Definition
100.
Term
In land navigation, which north is your starting point or baseline?
 Definition
True.
Term
What is an azimuth?
 Definition
A horizontal angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north.
Term
How do you convert a grid azimuth to magnetic azimuth?
 Definition
Subtract the 3.5 degrees from your azimuth.
Term
What is the most important thing to look for when inspecting your lensatic compass?
 Definition
The dial or arrow moves freely.
Term
Which method of movement gives you the lowest silhouette?
 Definition
Low crawl.
Term
Which movement technique requires a great deal of patience?
 Definition
Moving with stealth.
Term
When writing paragraph 2 - mission in the operations order, how often do you state the mission?
 Definition
Two times.
Term
In paragraph 3 - execution of the operations order, how should you write the concept of operations?
 Definition
Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from the start to finish.
Term
In which paragraph of the operations order is the mechanics of the operations addressed in detail?
 Definition
Maneuver.
Term
Which paragraph in the operations order addresses service and support, as needed, to clarify the service and support concept?
 Definition
4.
Term
Why would a leader issue a fragmentary order?
 Definition
To change an existing order.
Term
Which presentation shows the control measures and key terrain in relation to each other as well as a large rough drawing of the objective areas?
 Definition
Concept sketch.
Term
Which element or team of the combat patrol provides direct fire support and may control indirect fires for the squad or flight?
 Definition
Support.
Term
Attacks on a position or installation followed by a plan withdrawal, defines
 Definition
a raid.
Term
Which of the following is not a type of reconnaissance patrol?
 Definition
Silent.
Term
Which type of reconnaissance patrol is performed to obtain information on enemy, terrain, and routes within a specified zone?
 Definition
Zone.
Term
When leading a reconnaissance patrol, what technique positions surveillance teams in locations where they can collectively observe the entire zone long-term, continuously gathering information?
 Definition
Stationary teams.
Term
Before attempting to maneuver, when employing fire and maneuver techniques, units must establish a base
 Definition
of fire.
Term
In fire and maneuver operations, from where does most of the maneuvering forces fire support come?
 Definition
Your tem's own weapons.
Term
Why do squads use formations?
 Definition
For control flexibility and security.
Term
The basic formation for the fire team is the
 Definition
wedge.
Term
Which squad formation provides maximum firepower to the front?
 Definition
Line.
Term
When contact is possible, what movement technique should you choose for your squad?
 Definition
Traveling overwatch.
Term
Which bounding method is easier to control?
 Definition
Successive.
Term
Which movement techniques are combined to cross an area so large the squad cannot bypass it due to the time required to accomplish the mission?
 Definition
Traveling overwatch and bounding overwatch.
Term
You and your squad have come across a small open area to cross. You decide to use a series of 90-degree turns to the right or left so the squad moves around the open area until the far side is reached, then continue the mission. Which movement method did you elect to use?
 Definition
Detour bypass method.
Term
At squad level, which teams normally provide flank security as well as fires into the kill zone?
 Definition
The outside buddy teams.
Term
A deliberate ambush is conducted when your team
 Definition
has a specific target and a predetermined location.
Term
Which ambush uses limiting stakes to prevent friendly fires from hitting the assault element?
 Definition
I-shaped.
Term
If there is any return fire once the assault element begins to search, they must be prepared to move across the kill zone using whch movement technique?
 Definition
Individual.
Term
Normally, how does a team withdraw from a ambush site?
 Definition
In the reverse order that they establish their positions.
Term
What does a delay in an economy-of-force operation create to allow other actions to take
 Definition
Time.
Term
What are the two types of withdrawals?
 Definition
Assisted and unassisted.
Term
Which is not a method of disengaging from the enemy?
 Definition
Under Enemy Pressure.
Term
Which S-function is responsible for personnel management and development and maintenance of morale?
 Definition
S-1.
Term
Which S-function gathers intelligence for air base defense force operations; predicts effects of nuclear, biological, and chemical attacks; and relays weather information?
 Definition
S-2.
Term
The S-4 is normally responsible for completing which paragraph of the squadron operations order?
 Definition
Paragraph 4.
Term
The base commander form the base defense operations center with
 Definition
available base assets.
Term
Who is the chief of the base defense operations center?
 Definition
Commander, Base Defense Force.
Term
The CIS is responsible for all plans, estimates, reports, and requests concerning ground intelligence. The S2 CIS is responsible for all
 Definition
GCI affecting the ABD force.
Term
What is EEI?
 Definition
Essential elements of information.
Term
Which operational step in the vulnerability/criticality analysis is concerned with determining specific threats?
 Definition
1.
Term
When interviewing experts individually or as a group, you should ask the key questions during which operational step of the vulnerability/criticality analysis?
 Definition
5.
Term
For planning purposes, what is the range for field wire circuits using battery-operated telephones?
 Definition
22.5 to 35.4 km.
Term
Which installation methods are the easiest to maintain and provide the most satisfactory service?
 Definition
Aerial (overhead) wire/cable.
Term
How often should you conduct visual inspections of individual communications systems equipment?
 Definition
Daily.
Term
When cleaning communication equipment, what should you use to dust the switches and light emitting diodes?
 Definition
A soft bristled brush.
Term
To avoid injury and circuit damage, what should you always do before replacing components or making adjustments to electronic equipment?
 Definition
Remove power, discharge, and ground the equipment.
Term
The purpose of the communication security protective measures is to
 Definition
deny unauthorized persons telecommunications information.
Term
An authentication system is designed to protect a communications system against the
 Definition
acceptance of fraudulent transmissions.
Term
Before initiation of nuclear weapon movement, the convoy commander is responsible for completing a
 Definition
risk/vulnerability assesment and making sure recapture/recovery procedures are in place.
Term
When conducting a general on-base nuclear weapons movement, which of the following is not an objective of a sweep? To decrease the possibility of
 Definition
a breakdown in the road.
Term
What is the response time of a back-up force supporting ground movements of nuclear weapons?
 Definition
15 minutes.
Term
Which term is best to use when arranging a general off-base nuclear weapons movement with local authorities?
 Definition
Sensitive movement.
Term
What civilian law enforcement agency will be included in any off-base nuclear weapon movement?
 Definition
United States Marshal.
Term
In reference to convoy communication, what is the frequency requirement for a convoy program report?
 Definition
Every 15 minutes.
Term
Most convoy planning is based on unit
 Definition
SOP.
Term
While a convoy is moving on a controlled route, where will the start point usually be located?
 Definition
At the first checkpoint on the route that the convoy passes.
Term
Who is responsible for the mechanical condition of convoy vehicles?
 Definition
Commander of the moving unit.
Term
When hardening vehicles using sandbags, as an additional precaution, what is placed over the sandbags to reduce danger from fragments?
 Definition
A heavy rubber or fiber mat.
Term
What is the convoy driver's sector of observation?
 Definition
From 9 to 1 o'clock.
Term
Which formation is used to prevent third party traffic interference with the convoy's ability to change lanes?
 Definition
Changing lanes.
Term
Which convoy drill is used for small to medium vehicles and not a heavy or tractor-trailer configuration?
 Definition
In-stride hasty vehicle recovery.
Term
Producing combat ready units that respond to known or suspected enemy activity and defeat the enemy is the goal of
 Definition
Training.
Term
A collective action executed by a flight or smaller element without the application of a deliberate decision-making is a
 Definition
battle drill.
Term
If you are acting out the actions that will occur during a mission using the actual vehicles and equipment that will be used to conduct the operation, you are performing which type of mission rehearsal?
 Definition
Walk-through.
Term
When moving parallel to a building during an urban operation, how should you move from one covered position to another covered position?
 Definition
quickly.
Term
Before entering a building through a window or door that was created by artillery fire, what shouldd you throw into the new entrance to reinforce the effects of the original blast?
 Definition
a cooked off hand grenade.
Term
You would use precision room clearing techniques when
 Definition
the tactical situation calls for room-bby-room clearing of a relatively intact building in which enemy combatants and noncombatants may be intermixed.
Term
What clearing task involves seizing control of the room with the purpose of neutralizing the enemy in the room?
 Definition
High intensity.
Term
What advantage is gained by performing a rapid, violent assault?
 Definition
It overwhelmes and destroys the enemy force and seizes the objective.
Term
Which of the following statements concerning the reconnaissance in force (precision techniques) is not true?
 Definition
It causes minimal stress in those involved.
Term
Which principle of precision room clearing is the key to a successful assault at close quarters?
 Definition
Surprise.
Term
What is often needed to defeat barriers that are more elaborate or to produce a desired effect to aid the initial entry?
 Definition
Demolitions.
Term
After entering a room, which enemy threat is engaged first?
 Definition
The most immediate enemy threat.
Term
When performing building clearing, what must squad and fire team leaders consider to achieve the desired results?
 Definition

The task and purpose they have been given and the method they are to use.

 

(FINAL QUESTION)
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