Term
| Into what two categories can you divide the OSI model? |
|
Definition
| Application (upper) and data transport (lower) layers. |
|
|
Term
| What is the responsibility of the Data Transport layers of the OSI model? |
|
Definition
| Defining how data is sent across the physical media, through Internetwork devices, to the destination computer, and to the application on the destination machine. |
|
|
Term
| What is a physical topology? |
|
Definition
| It is a "map," or description, of the layout of the network media that interconnects the devices on a network. |
|
|
Term
| What is a logical topology? |
|
Definition
| It defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network. |
|
|
Term
| What is the rule of thumb to distinguish physical from logical topologies? |
|
Definition
| If you can see it and touch it, it is physical; if you cannot see it or touch it, it it logical. |
|
|
Term
| A topology affects the network's capabilities; what is the impact of choosing one topology over another? |
|
Definition
| Type of equipment the network needs; capabilities of the equipment; growth of the network; and the way the network is managed. |
|
|
Term
| What are the advantages of a bus topology? |
|
Definition
| Inexpensive to install; easy to add more workstations; requires less cable than other; works well for small networks (2-10 devices). |
|
|
Term
| What are the disadvantages of a bus topology? |
|
Definition
| It's no longer a recommended option for new installations; if the backbone breaks, the network is down, only a limited number of devices can be included; it's difficult to isolate where a problem may be; and sharing the same cable means slower access time. |
|
|
Term
| What are the advantages of a star toplogy? |
|
Definition
| It's easy to add more devices as you network expands; the failure of one cable or one cable break will not bring down the entire network; the hub provides centralized management; it's easy to find device and cable problems; a star network can be upgraded to faster network transmission speeds; and it's the most common topology, so many equipment options are available. |
|
|
Term
| What are the disadvantages of a star topology? |
|
Definition
| A star network requires more media than a ring or bus network; the failure of the central hub can bring down the entire network; and the costs of installation and equipment are higher than for most bus networks. |
|
|
Term
| What are the advantages of a ring topology? |
|
Definition
| Data packets can travel at greater speeds; there are no collisions; and it is easier to locate problems with devices and cable; and no terminators are needed. |
|
|
Term
| What are the disadvantages of a ring topology? |
|
Definition
| A ring network requires more cable than a bus network; a break in the cable will bring many types of ring networks down when you add devices to the ring, all devices are suspended from using the network; and it's not as common as the bus topology; so there's not as much equipment available. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two most common hybrid topologies? |
|
Definition
| Star-bus and star-ring topologies. |
|
|
Term
| The easiest way to break down the many protocols of the TCP/IP suite is according to where they operate within the OSI model. Each protocol in this stack operate at what four layers? |
|
Definition
| The Data Link layer, the Network layer (also known as the Internet layer in the TCP/IP model), the Transport layer, or the Application layer. |
|
|
Term
| The protocols at the Data Link layer define the access method for the media, the architecture, and interface with the Physical layer of the network. What standards are these protocols based on? |
|
Definition
| The standards that have been adopted by the IEEE as the Project 802 standards. |
|
|
Term
| What are the four most important TCP/IP protocols that function within the network layer? |
|
Definition
| Internet Protocol (IP), Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP), and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). |
|
|
Term
| What are the fields belonging to a TCP segment? |
|
Definition
| Source port, Destination port, Sequence number, Acknowledgement number (ACK), TCP header length, Reserved, Flags, Sliding-window size (or window), Checksum, Urgent pointer, Options, Padding, and Data. |
|
|
Term
| What are some reasons form implementing DHCP? |
|
Definition
| To reduce time spent on IP address management, to reduce the potential for errors in assigning IP addresses, adn to make IP addressing transparent for mobile users. |
|
|
Term
| What is a group of computers and device that share a common communication line and resources in a small geographical area? |
|
Definition
| Local Area Network (LAN). |
|
|
Term
| A local area network may serve how many users? |
|
Definition
| As few as two or three users or as many as thousands of users. |
|
|
Term
| What type of network is also used as a means to interconnect several local area network by bridging them with backbone lines? |
|
Definition
| A Metropolitan Area Network or campus network. |
|
|
Term
| What network provides a private tunnel through the Internet? |
|
Definition
| Virtual Private Network (VPN). |
|
|
Term
| What type computer port specifies a service that is a process or application that runs on a serer and provides some benefits to a network user? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the port used when you do credit card transactions with e-commerce sites? |
|
Definition
| Port 443-SSL is the default port use when you do credit card transactions with an e-commerce site. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two main parts of an IPv4 address? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who assigns network numbers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Convert 111000000 10101000 01111011 01100100 to dotted decimal notation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the reserved IPv4 address for loopback? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the reserved IPv4 address for a limited broadcast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two methods of subnet masking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between the two methods of subnet masking? |
|
Definition
| Classful subnet masking is using the default mask to separate the network number, given by IANA, from the host number. Classless subnet masking borrows bits from the host field, extending beyond the default mask assigned by IANA, and creating a subnet field. |
|
|
Term
| What are some benefits to subnetting? |
|
Definition
| Ease of administration, improve network performance and security. |
|
|
Term
| How long is an IPv6 address? |
|
Definition
| It is 128-bits or 16 octets long. |
|
|
Term
| How is an IPv6 address expressed? |
|
Definition
| 16 byte fields, in colon hexadecimal format. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two ways to shorten the expression of an IPv6 address? |
|
Definition
| Leading zero compression and zero compression. |
|
|
Term
| What is a unicast address? |
|
Definition
| Adress identity to a single interface. |
|
|
Term
| What is a multicast address? |
|
Definition
| An address used to identify a group of interfaces belonging to different nodes starting with an address of FF00::/8. |
|
|
Term
| What is an anycast address? |
|
Definition
| An address used to identify a set of interfaces; but the packets are sent and accepted by the interface that is closest. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of unicast address? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the IPv6 loop back address? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some tools available to transition from IPv4 to IPv6? |
|
Definition
| Dual IP layer / Dual Stack, Configured tunneling of IPv6 over IPv4, IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses, and automatic tunneling of IPv6 over IPv4. |
|
|
Term
| What does the acronym RAM mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between ROM and RAM? |
|
Definition
| ROM is a type of memory that normally can only be read, as opposed to RAM, which can be both read and written. The data stored in ROM is always there, whether there is power or no power. RAM willretain their data as long as stable power is applied. |
|
|
Term
| Name the special tlype of memory used to store the BIOS settings in a pc. |
|
Definition
| Complementary metal oxide semiconductor memory. |
|
|
Term
| What speed enhancement is a small amount of memory placed inside the CPU or between the CPU and the main memory computer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What device converts the wall outlet's AC into DC to provide power to all power to all internal circuitry in a computer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Explain the term Input/Output. |
|
Definition
| The term Input/Output can describe any program, operation, or device communicating to/from a computer. |
|
|
Term
| What is the "trade name" that refers to the 40-pin interface and drive-controller architecture designed to implement the ATA standard? |
|
Definition
| IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics controller). |
|
|
Term
| List five extenal computer connections. |
|
Definition
| PS/2, Serial, Parallel, Universal Serial Bus, Fire Wire. |
|
|
Term
| Name four integrated/internal peripheral devices. |
|
Definition
| Hard disk, CD/DVD-ROM, Sound Card, and Graphics/video card. |
|
|
Term
| How much data can a CD-ROM store? CD-R? DVD-ROM? |
|
Definition
| 650 MB, 700 MB, and 4 GB. |
|
|
Term
| Most high-volume printers can connect to a network directly using what internal device? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary use for a bridge? |
|
Definition
| To decrease network congestion. |
|
|
Term
| What two basic issues must be considered before implementing a bridge? |
|
Definition
| The 80/20 rule and the elimination of bridging loops. |
|
|
Term
| Name the type of bridging used on Ethernet networks. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the five functions that must occur for transparent bridging. |
|
Definition
| Learning, flooding, forwarding, filtering, aging. |
|
|
Term
| What do LAN switches provide between network devices? |
|
Definition
| Collision-free, high-speed communication. |
|
|
Term
| Can a switch connect LANs of different bandwidths? If so, give example. |
|
Definition
| Yes. A switch can connect a 10Mbps LAN and a 100Mbps LAN. |
|
|
Term
| What type of switching is required when a frame must be moved from a low-speed LAN to a high-speed LAN? |
|
Definition
| Store-and-forward switching. |
|
|
Term
| Routers operate at what layer of the OSI Model? |
|
Definition
| Routers operate at the Network layer of the OSI Model. |
|
|
Term
| What does a typical router contain? |
|
Definition
| A typical router has an internal processor, an operating system, memory, input and output jacks for different types of network connectors (depending on the network type), and, usually, a management console interface. |
|
|
Term
| Name three metrics that routers use to determine the best route. |
|
Definition
| Path length, reliability, routing delay, bandwidth, load, and communication cost. |
|
|
Term
| What routing protocols that manage traffic within an autonomous system? |
|
Definition
| Interior Gateway Protocols. |
|
|
Term
| Name two methods for directing data on the network. |
|
Definition
| Static or dynamic routing. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A technique in which a network administrator programs a router to use specific paths between nodes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A router automatically calculates the best path between two nodes and compiles this info in a routing table. |
|
|
Term
| What are two types of encryption? |
|
Definition
| Data and voice encryption. |
|
|
Term
| What are two devices used for data encryption? |
|
Definition
| The TSEC KIV-7 and the TSEC KIV-19. |
|
|
Term
| What two telephone devises are used for voice encryption? |
|
Definition
| The secure telephone unit and the secure terminal equipment. |
|
|
Term
| What are two types of data encryption fill devices? |
|
Definition
| The AN/CYZ-10/DTD and the Secure DTD 2000 System (SDS). |
|
|
Term
| How can encryption be applied? |
|
Definition
| Link-by-link basis, end-to-end basis or bulk encryption. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of modems used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is one of the principal functions of a CSU? |
|
Definition
| To provide a barrier for electrical interference from either side of the unit. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main function of a DSU? |
|
Definition
| To adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment, and vice versa. |
|
|
Term
| At the simplest level, state two things done by an operating system. |
|
Definition
(1) It manages the hardware and software resources of the computer system. These resources include such things as the processor, memory, disk drives, sound card, etc.
(2) It provides a stable, consistent way for applications to deal with the hardware without having to know all the details of the hardware. |
|
|
Term
| Name the six categories of an operating system's tasks. |
|
Definition
| Processor management, memory management, device management, storage management, application interface, and user interface. |
|
|
Term
| Applications are called what type of programs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Microsoft Access used? |
|
Definition
| Microsoft Access is a software program that allows user to create a desktop database. |
|
|
Term
| What program is free to download from Adobe's website that allows you to PDF files? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name Microsoft Windows family of operating systems. |
|
Definition
| Windows 98, Windows NT, Windows 2000 series, Windows XP, Windows Vista, and Windows 7. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A collection of computers defined by the administrator of a Windows Server network that share a common directory/database. |
|
|
Term
| When did Bell Labs develop the UNIX operating system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the program called that you intaract with directly from your terminal or workstation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name four common shells in UNIX. |
|
Definition
| Bourne shell, Korn shell, C shell, and Restricted shell. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Partitions are physical areas of disk allocated with specific sizes to hold file systems. |
|
|
Term
| When are partitions established? |
|
Definition
| During system configuration. |
|
|
Term
| In what directory are application programs contained? |
|
Definition
| The usr (user) directory. |
|
|
Term
| What is the firmware prompt called on Sun machines? |
|
Definition
| "ok" (often called the O.K. prompt). |
|
|
Term
| What are the seven components of the GIG? |
|
Definition
| Warrior Component, Global Application, Computer, Communications, Foundation, Information Management. |
|
|
Term
| What organization has the mission of directing and operating the GIG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which characteristic of the GIG ensures that users across the DOD can seamlessly connect to the systems and services offered by the GIG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What three networks make up the data component of DISN? |
|
Definition
| Non-secure Internet Protocol Router Network, Secret Internet Protocol, Router Network, Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System. |
|
|
Term
| Why does the DOD need to have its own voice communications networks? |
|
Definition
| Because of the nature of the military's mission requirements and security concerns. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the long-haul transport infrastructure segment of the DISN? |
|
Definition
| It is the pipeline through which all DISN information will travel. |
|
|
Term
| Explain how the NIPRNET connects LANs and users. |
|
Definition
| Through the use of routers and ATM switches, which are interconnected using high-speed digital trunks. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of NIPRNET? |
|
Definition
| The NIPRNET is the way a local base LAN connects to other base LANs to support medical, finance, supply, personnel, and the other unclassified base daa communication requirements. |
|
|
Term
| How is it possible for NIPRNET to carry non-internet protocol services? |
|
Definition
| Subscriber systems can use the NIPRNET to carry non-IP services if they have been encapsulated or converted to IP before being presented to a NIPRNET router. |
|
|
Term
| Who manages SIPRNET Hub routers and premise routers? |
|
Definition
| Hub routers are managed by DISA. Premise routers are managed as a base communications asset. |
|
|
Term
| How does SIPRNET function like unclassified IP networks? |
|
Definition
| It can use Ethernet, router, FDDI, ATM data link protocols. |
|
|
Term
| What network is JWICS the Top Secret equivalent? |
|
Definition
| JWICS is the Top Secret equivalent to SIPRNET. |
|
|
Term
| What system is the primary means of operator interface for JWICS? |
|
Definition
| The primary means of operator interface for JWICS is the Joint Deployable Intelligence Support System. |
|
|
Term
| How does CITS manage the lifecycle of the Air Force's communications and information systems? |
|
Definition
| By providing standardized infrastructure and network protection tools for all voice, video, and data services that traverse base networks. |
|
|
Term
| What are the four segments of the CITS transport component? |
|
Definition
| Information Transport System, 2nd Generation Wireless LAN (2GWLAN), Voice Switching System, C4ISR Infrastructure Planning System. |
|
|
Term
| What CITS NM/ND component is the most recent stride towards in-depth security for Air Force networks? |
|
Definition
| Limiting our connections to the GIG. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two categories of DSN users? |
|
Definition
| Command and Control and Operational Support. |
|
|
Term
| Which user category is assigned flash or flash-override precedence? |
|
Definition
| Command and Control users. |
|
|
Term
| What are the five key objectives of DSN? |
|
Definition
| Survivability, responsivenes, security, cost effectiveness, interoperability. |
|
|
Term
| What device makes end-to-end encryption available to DSN users? |
|
Definition
| Secure Terminal Equipment. |
|
|
Term
| What are the major subsystems of DSN? |
|
Definition
| 1) Switching; 2) transmission; 3) timing and synchronization, administration; 4) administration, operations and maintenance/network management (AO&M/NM). |
|
|
Term
| What is the system high level of security for operation of the Red Switch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which standard data rates will the Red Switch offer direct switching? |
|
Definition
| Up to 64 Kbps for synchronous and 19.2 Kbps for asynchronous. |
|
|
Term
| How many station lines can the multiline phone accommodate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe the purpose of standardized tactical entry points. |
|
Definition
| To allow tactical DSCS terminals to access the Defense Communication System. |
|
|
Term
| Why are tactical terminals considered at a disadvantage? |
|
Definition
| Tactical terminals are generally considered "disadvantaged" because they require much more of the satellite's downlink power to receive the signals. |
|
|
Term
| What four services are provided via the standardized tactical entry point? |
|
Definition
| Seven T1 DSN access circuits, Three Red Switch accesses, up to 10 Mbps data access, and multiple video circuits from 128 Kbps to 1.544 Mbps per circuit. |
|
|
Term
| Why was Teleport developed? |
|
Definition
| Teleport was developed to expand multi-media RF access to multiple military and commercial communications systems, while taking advantage and expanding the baseband equipment and DISN services the STEP program has installed. |
|
|
Term
| What is the Navstar Global Positioning System (Navstar GPS)? |
|
Definition
| Navstar GPS is a constellation of earth orbiting satellites designed to provide authorized and appropriately equipped users with worldwide three-dimensional positioning and navigation information. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two primary missions of the Global Positioning System? |
|
Definition
| Navigation and nuclear detection. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| OPSEC is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities. |
|
|
Term
| What is the goal of OPSEC? |
|
Definition
| The goal of OPSEC is to identify information and observable activities relating to mission capabilities, limitations and intentions in order to prevent exploitation by our adversaries. |
|
|
Term
| Which security programs does OPSEC encompass? |
|
Definition
| OPSEC encompasses all AF security program. |
|
|
Term
| Who established the INFOSEC program? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the definition and goal of the INFOSEC program? |
|
Definition
| The goal of the INFOSEC Program is to efficiently and effectively protect Air Force information by delegating authority to the lowest levels possible; encouraging and advocating use of risk management principles; focusing on identifying and protecting only that information that requires protection; integrating security procedures into our business processes so that they become transparent; and, ensuring everyone understands their security roles and responsibilities. |
|
|
Term
| What does the Privacy Act of 1974 protect? |
|
Definition
| The Privacy Act (PA) of 1974 is the legal statute (law) protecting individuals from unwarranted invasion of their personal privacy. |
|
|
Term
| What AFI contains information on the Privacy Act? |
|
Definition
| AFI 33-332, Air Force Privacy Act Program, contains the Air Force's policy on Privacy Act information. |
|
|
Term
| Name the four parts of the Privacy Act statement. |
|
Definition
| Authority, purpose, routine uses, and disclosure. |
|
|
Term
| How are PA protected records disposed? |
|
Definition
| Records protected by the Privacy Act are disposed of according to the records retention schedule on the file plan. The method of destruction depends on the composition of the material. |
|
|
Term
| What are the categories of classified information? |
|
Definition
| Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential. |
|
|
Term
| What document covers FOUO and FOIA? |
|
Definition
| The Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), covered in DOD 5400.7-R, DOD Freedom of Information Act Program, provides information on the FOUO designation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of COMSEC? |
|
Definition
| COMSEC is defined as the measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from information systems of the US Government related to national security and to make sure the authenticity of such information systems. |
|
|
Term
| How does TRANSEC relate to COMSEC? |
|
Definition
| Transmission security (TRANSEC) is the component COMSEC resulting from the application of measures designed to protect information systems traffic from the interception and exploitation by means other than crypto-analysis. |
|
|
Term
| What is critical information? |
|
Definition
| Critical information is information about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities, or limitations that an adversary seeks in order to gain a military, political, diplomatic, economic, or technological advantage. |
|
|
Term
| Explain the two-person integrity system. |
|
Definition
| Two-person integrity (TPI) is a storage and handling system that prohibits acces to COMSEC keying material to lone or unaccompanied individuals. TPI procedures require the presence of at least two unauthorized persons, both who know TPI procedures and who can detect incorrect or unauthorized security procedures for the performed task. |
|
|
Term
| What is AFCOMSEC Form 16 used for? |
|
Definition
| AFCOMSEC Form 16, Account Daily Shift Inventory is used to account for COMSEC material using both Defense Courier Service and the Air Force Electronic Key Management System. |
|
|
Term
| What should you look for before you open a COMSEC package? |
|
Definition
| Make sure there is no evidence of tampering or forced entry. If you suspect tampering or forced entry from a previous custodian, do not open the package until advised to do so by the appropriate COMSEC authority or CRO. |
|
|
Term
| What is AF Form 1109 used for? |
|
Definition
| AF Form 1109 is used to document visitor access to restricted areas where classified is being processed. |
|
|
Term
| What is a COMSEC deviation? |
|
Definition
| A COMSEC deviation is an occurance involving a failure to follow established COMSEC instructions, procedures, or standards. |
|
|
Term
| What is a COMSEC insecurity? |
|
Definition
| A COMSEC insecurity is an investigated or evaluated incident that has been determined as jeopardizing the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information. |
|
|
Term
| What is a COMSEC incident? |
|
Definition
(1) Any uninvestigated or unevaluated occurance tha potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information.
(2) Any investigated or evaluated occurrence that has been determined as not jeapardizing the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of secure information. This means that presently, harm is unfounded or alleged. These are generally classified as "Confidential" until receiving guidance from higher agencies. |
|
|
Term
| Name the three COMSEC incidents. |
|
Definition
| Physical, Personnel, and Cryptographic incidents. |
|
|
Term
| How does a practice dangerous to security (PDS) differ from a COMSEC incident? |
|
Definition
| Practice dangerous to security (PDS) is defined as a procedure that has the potential to jeapoardize the security of COMSEC material if allowed to continue. A PDS is not a COMSEC incident and is not assigned an Air Force COMSEC Incident case number. |
|
|
Term
| What document is used to label unsecured phones? |
|
Definition
| DD Form 2056 is used to label unsecured phones. |
|
|
Term
| When are the COMSEC final reports due? |
|
Definition
| Final reports are due 30 days after the initial report is issued. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| COMPUSEC is the applied discipline that results from measures and controls that protect data in a computer against unauthorized (accidental or intentional) disclosure, modification, or destruction. |
|
|
Term
| What are the objectives of COMPUSEC? |
|
Definition
| COMPUSEC objectives are to protect and maintain the confidentiality, integrity, availability, authentication, and nonrepudiation of information system resources and information processed throughout the system's life cycle. |
|
|
Term
| What are three sources that threat information systems? |
|
Definition
| Threats are caused from natural, environmental, human, and viruses. |
|
|
Term
| Define the COMPUESEC and IA vulnerabilities. |
|
Definition
The COMPUSEC and IA vulnerabilities are:
(1) Physical--weaknesses in the control and accountability of physical access to controlled areas. The controls can be implemented either through automated or manual means.
(2) Environmental--weaknesses or deficiencies in maintaining the environmental stability, control, and safety of the computer area.
(3) Personnel--deficiencies in the controls that make sure all personnel who have access to sensitive information have the required authority and appropriate clearance.
(4) Hardware--deficiencies with installation, operating, and maintaining the systems and network hardware.
(5) Softwarel--deficiencies in the control of network and computer operating systems, software versions, data, and related security software.
(6) Media--deficiencies in the control and maintenance of magnetic and hard copy media.
(7) Network communications--deficiencies in the security and controls of the various communications mediums used to transmit data between the servers and network users.
(8) Procedural--deficiencies in the development and maintenance of procedures, rosters, and forms that provide guidance, definition of responsibilities, and identification of personnel. |
|
|
Term
| How can you protect an unattended computer system? |
|
Definition
| You can protect a system by removing your Common Access Card (CAC) from reader when unattended. |
|
|
Term
| What type of network is used to process unclassified information? |
|
Definition
| Non-secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET) |
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Term
| What type of network is used to process classified information? |
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Definition
| Secret Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET). |
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Term
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Definition
| Spyware is computer software that is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. |
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Term
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Definition
| Emission Security (EMSEC) is the protection resulting from all measures taken to deny unauthorized personnel information of value that might be derived from communications systems and cryptographic equipment intercepts and the interception and analysis of compromising emanations from cryptographic-equipment, information systems, and telecommunications systems. |
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Term
| What is the objective of EMSEC? |
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Definition
| The objective of EMSEC is to deny access to classified and, in some instances, unclassified information and contain compromising emanations within an inspectable space. |
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Term
| What are compromising emanations? |
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Definition
| Unintentional signal that, if intercepted and analyzed, would disclose the information transferred, received, handled, or otherwise processed by any information-processing equipment. |
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Term
| What does an EMSEC assessment determine? |
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Definition
| A desktop analysis to determine the fact an EMSEC countermeasures review is required or not. There are separate EMSEC assessments for information systems, communications systems, and cryptographic equipment. |
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Term
| What does an EMSEC countermeasure provide? |
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Definition
| A technical evaluation of a facility where classified information will be processed that identifies the EMSEC vulberabilites and threats, specifies the required inspectable space, determines the required EMSEC countermeasures, and ascertains the most cost-effective way to apply required countermeasures. |
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Term
| What does the user identify before applying EMSEC countermeasures? |
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Definition
| The user identifies the information systems that will process classified information; the volume, relative sensitivity, and perishability of the information; the physical control measures in effect around the area that will process classified information; and applies identified IA and EMSEC countermeasures. |
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Term
| What do INFOCONs help us with? |
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Definition
| INFOCONs help units take the proper protective measures to protect against threats. |
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Term
| What measures are in place when there is an increased risk of attack in INFOCON 4? |
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Definition
| Increased monitoring of all network activities is mandated, and all DOD end users must make sure their systems are secure. Internet usage may be restricted to government sites only, and backing up files to removable media is ideal. |
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Term
| Describe the actions taken in INFOCON 2. |
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Definition
| Non-essential networks may be taken offline, and alternate methods of communication may be implemented. |
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Term
| What disciplines does IA integrate? |
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Definition
| Information awareness is an integrated communications awareness program covering COMSEC, COMPUSEC, and emissions security (EMSEC) disciplines. |
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Term
| What actions must peronnel take to meet the goals of the IA program? |
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Definition
| Personnel must understand the necessity and practice of safeguarding information processed, stored, or transmitted on information systems and the various concepts of IA countermeasures to protect systems and information from sabotage, tampering, denial of service, espionage, fraud, misappropriation, misuse, or access by unauthorized persons. |
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Term
| What equipment does the AF-GIG encompass? |
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Definition
| The AF-GIG includes any Air Force-provisioned system, equipment, software, or service residing on the NIPRNET, SIPRNET, or Constellation Net. |
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Term
| What is the Global Information Grid? |
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Definition
| The Global Information Grid (GIG) is an all-encompassing communications project of the DOD. It is defined as the globally interconnected, end-to-end set of information capabilities, associated processes, and personnel for collecting, processing, storing, disseminating, and managing information on demand to warfighters, policymakers, and support personnel. |
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Term
| What are the three NETOPS Levels? |
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Definition
| Global, Regional, and Local. |
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Term
| What is the responsibility of GNOSC? |
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Definition
| Global NOSC is responsible for the worldwide management and opertional oversight of the Defense Information Infrastructure. |
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Term
| Where do FACs exist and what are their purposes? |
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Definition
| Functional Awareness Cells are regional level entities that exist at the same NETOPS management tier as the Base NCC. They report to and take direction from the Base and supporting NOSC. FACs require smaller amounts of equipment and performs situational awareness for a functional system of mission. |
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Term
| What does an accreditation and certification constitute? |
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Definition
| Accreditation and Certification constitutes a set of procedures and judgements which lead to a determination of the suitability of an AIS to operate in a targeted operational environment. |
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Term
| Who makes accreditation decisions and what types can be made? |
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Definition
| An accreditation decision is made by the DAA. This accreditation can be a full accreditation which allows a system to operate in an evironment for which it was originally intended or interim (temporary) accreditation which permist an AIS to operate until identified steps can be completed prior to receiving full accreditation. |
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Term
| Define physical security. |
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Definition
| Physical security results from using all physical measures necessary to safeguard COMSEC material from access of unauthorized personnel. These measures include the application of control procedures and physical barriers. |
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Term
| List the markings required for classified material. |
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Definition
| The overall classification of the document; the agency/office of origin and date of the document; the office or source document that classified the information. |
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Term
| What items cannot be placed in security container used to store classified material? Why? |
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Definition
| Funds, weapons, medical items, controlled drugs, precious metals, money or other non-mission related items susceptible to theft are not, as a rule, stored in any security container that's used to store classified material. Storing these items together could result in the compromise of classified material. |
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Term
| What is the purpose of SF 700? |
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Definition
| The purpose of SF 700 is to records the container's location, the names, home addresses, and home telephone numbers of people who know the combination. It is also used to list contact personnel when the security of the material in the container is compromised. |
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Term
| On what days are Secret packages typically shipped? |
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Definition
| Packages containing Secret material are typically shipped on Monday through Thursday only. |
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Term
| When should hand carrying classified material during a TDY assignment be allowed? |
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Definition
| Hand carrying classified material during TDY poses a risk and should be done as a last resort in critical situations. |
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Term
| What provides guidance on how to properly dispose of classified material? |
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Definition
| WebRims Records Disposition Schedule. |
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Term
| What are the three types of secured facility deviations? |
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Definition
| Temporary, permanent, and technical. |
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