Term
| Name three factors that affect microwave propagation. |
|
Definition
| Reflection, refraction, and/or diffraction as it travels between a transmitting and receiving antenna. |
|
|
Term
| Name three major propagation paths and identigy the radio system(s) used with each. |
|
Definition
| Ground waves, space waves, and sky waves; HF and microwave frequencies. |
|
|
Term
| A space wave and a reflected wave arrive at the receive antenna 180 degrees out-of-phase. What effect will this have on the receiver signal level (RSL)? |
|
Definition
| RSL will decrease due to partial or total canellation. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the RSL when reflected waves and space waves pass in and out-of-phase at the receive antenna? |
|
Definition
| RSL will vary due to the aiding and opposing of the two signals. |
|
|
Term
| How much further is the radio horizon than the true horizon in a "standard" atmosphere? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| K experiences a signifcant decrease in value. What effect does this have on the radio horizon? |
|
Definition
| The wave is bent more and radio horizon decreases and is known as superstandard refraction. |
|
|
Term
| As the atmosphere becomes less dense, what happens to the speed of the propagated wave? |
|
Definition
| As K varies, the distance the wave travels to the radio horizon varies, causing fading at the receive antenna. |
|
|
Term
| Define the term "diffraction." |
|
Definition
| The down bending of radio waves as they graze the surface of an obstruction. |
|
|
Term
| What determines the size of the waveguide? |
|
Definition
| Wavelength of the energy to be transmitted. |
|
|
Term
| What is the waveguide's cutoff frequency? |
|
Definition
| A limiting frequency below microwave range where it cannot transmit a signal. |
|
|
Term
| How many miles are satellites placed in orbit and why? |
|
Definition
| 22,300 miles above the earth to maintain stability. At this distance the satellite does not fall back to earth and does not drift off into space. |
|
|
Term
| In what way is satellite communications a deficiency? |
|
Definition
| Although transmitting on the uplink is secure, transmission on the downlink is in broadcast mode which makes it unsecure. |
|
|
Term
| AName two satellite communication systems. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| To transmit audiofrequencies over appreciable distances, and to send more than one message at the same time through the same medium. |
|
|
Term
| What is the frequency bandwidth of a high frequency signal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two paths that a HF signal can travel? |
|
Definition
| Ground wave and sky wave transmission |
|
|
Term
| What is referred to as coherency? |
|
Definition
| The properties of a laser light that make a narrow beam and does not diverge or spread out like light from a flashlight. |
|
|
Term
| Name three disadvantages to laser light transmission? |
|
Definition
| Laser light is strictly an LOS transmission media. Great care is required to properly align the transmiting and receiving equipment. Laser light is susceptible to atmospheric interference, and cannot penetrate walls or even very thin coverings such as curtains or paper. |
|
|
Term
| What is one of laser light transmissions greatest advantages? |
|
Definition
| No FCC license is required; equipment in moderate in cost; undetected eavesdropping is difficult. |
|
|
Term
| Broadband is a term that refers to what type of signaling method? |
|
Definition
| Broadband refers to a signaling method that can handle a relatively large range (band) or frequencies. |
|
|
Term
| Give two examples of broadband technology. |
|
Definition
| ADSL and cable television service. |
|
|
Term
| What transmission media can utilize broadband signaling? |
|
Definition
| Copper wire, fiber optic or wireless media can all utilize broadband signaling. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two main interfaces used in ISDN? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There are two channel configurations for PRI, what are they? |
|
Definition
| 30 bearer channels and 2 delta channels for an E1 circuit and 23 bearer channels with 1 delta channel for a T1 circuit. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary application for PRI connections? |
|
Definition
| Provide higher information transfer speeds and call setup times. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two uses for BRI in the military? |
|
Definition
| Video teleconferencing and STE. |
|
|
Term
| How is voice transmitted and received by a telephone? |
|
Definition
| The voice of the talker vibrates a membrane that has a magnet attached to it. The magnet causes changes in the electrical current running through the coil. These electrical current changes are transmitted in some fashion to the speaker at the other end, causing another membrane with a magnet attached to vibrate and reproduce sound. |
|
|
Term
| The telephone exchange system was developed to address what problems? |
|
Definition
| Because original telephones were only set up in a point-to-point manner, a person would have to have multiple telephones in their home or office to call multiple destinations. |
|
|
Term
| What was the impact of conversion from manual switchboards to electro-mechanical switches? |
|
Definition
| Electro-mechanical switches enabled calls to be established faster and more relably, while allowing telephone companies to cut personnel costs. |
|
|
Term
| What does a dial tone signal? |
|
Definition
| The user that the telephone line is connected to the switch and is ready to transmit dialing digits. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three cornerstones of voice network system security? |
|
Definition
| Confidentiality, integrity, and availability. |
|
|
Term
| Inadvertent disclosure of communications violates which cornerstone of voice network system security? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Problems that affect the quality of service and the functionality of customers require are related to what cornerstone of voice network system security? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ensuring redundancy in voice network system so that system operations are maintained if there is a failure at any single point in the system relates to which cornerstone of voice network system security? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| PBX switches generally handle what kind of traffic? |
|
Definition
| Internal call traffic for an organization and connect the organization to outside public switched telephone networks. |
|
|
Term
| What types of services can the Meridian Option 11C PBX support? |
|
Definition
| It can handle 60 to 720 lines, Voice over Internet Protocol, ISDN Basic Rate Interface lines, Voice Messaging, call center operation multi-media applications and computer-based system management. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two models of DMS-100 family digital switching systems that are used at most Air Force bases to provide base telephone services? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum number of ports that a fully expanded DMS-100 and MSL-100 can support? |
|
Definition
| The DMS-100 can support up to 100,000 ports and the MSL-100 can support up to 30,000 ports. |
|
|
Term
| What is the physical difference between the DMS-100 and MSL-100? |
|
Definition
| The equipment for a DMS-100 is installed within 6-foot equipment racks while the equipment for an MSL-100 is installed in six-foot modular cabinets. |
|
|
Term
| Which major area monitors and controls all system activity by executing stored computer programs? |
|
Definition
| The central control area. |
|
|
Term
| What are the elements that make up the control components for the SuperNode central control area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the SLM used for? |
|
Definition
| To boot load the CM and MS from disk or tape, load an office image into the inactive CPU, dump an image to disk, and perform offline transfers from tape to disk, or disk to tape. |
|
|
Term
| With what three services/facilities does a PM interface? |
|
Definition
| Analog/digital trunk facilities, subscriber lines, and test/service trunks. |
|
|
Term
| What component in a PM performs local procesing functions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many analog circuits can be connected to a TM8? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many line cards are controlled by one of the two processors in an LCM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many LCMs can occupy a single bay? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What major area provides an interface between the maintenance subsystem software and the maintenance technician? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To what central control component(s) does the IOC interface? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many DCs can be connected to one IOC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What IOC card is required to interface a tape drive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What IOC card is required to interface a disk drive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is terminated on the vertical and horizontal sides of the MDF? |
|
Definition
| Circuits routed over the base cable plant leading to the subscriber's buildings are terminated on the vertical side. Equipment appearances from the peripheral area of the telephone switch are terminated on the horizontal side. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of protectors installed on the MDF? |
|
Definition
| They protect the switching system from damage due to high voltages that could enter the central office via the base cable plant. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of jumpers on the MDF? |
|
Definition
| They connect the telephone numbers from the switching system to specific cable pairs that are routed to various telephone subscribers. |
|
|
Term
| What precaution should you take before removing and replacing faulty terminal or distribution frame protectors? |
|
Definition
| Measure the voltage across the protector prior to removing it to ensure dangerous voltages are not still present on the line. |
|
|
Term
| What are the safety rules you need to remember when using a ladder? |
|
Definition
| Use wood or reinforced fiberglass ladders and remove any finger rings you may be wearing. |
|
|
Term
| How many planes and shelves per plane are provisioned in a fully equipped ENET? |
|
Definition
| Two planes and four shelves per plane. |
|
|
Term
| What two switch functions does the ENET provide access to? |
|
Definition
| Messaging and a speech and signaling path. |
|
|
Term
| How many horizontal buses are provided on each ENET shelf and what is their designation? |
|
Definition
| Two H-buses per shelf designated odd and even. |
|
|
Term
| How are PMs connected to the ENET? |
|
Definition
| Hardwired to a designated port. |
|
|
Term
| How does a circuit entering the ENET on an odd card slot gain access to the even H-bus? |
|
Definition
| Through a V-bus extension to its mate even card. |
|
|
Term
| How many sections is each H-bus divided into? |
|
Definition
| Eight sections numbered 0-7. |
|
|
Term
| What major DMS database facility provides facilities for mapping data from its external character string format to its logical binary format? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When changing the DMS database, you are required to name particular entries. Which major database facility stores these entries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the POF system? |
|
Definition
| It provides facilities for storing DMOs and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution. |
|
|
Term
| Which data base facility preserves DMO on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the switch should fail? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What user interfaces are available on the MSM that use Meridian Mail software? |
|
Definition
| Nortel's (Northern Telecom) proprietary MMUI and VMUIF. |
|
|
Term
| What is the storage capacity of a single SPN? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the Meridian mail user interface user options that VMUIF does not support? |
|
Definition
| TAG, timed delivery, add to an already existing recorded message and save copies of messages. |
|
|
Term
| How does the system notify a VMUIF mailbox user they have received a message? |
|
Definition
| Message waiting indicator (either a light on the phone or an interrupted dial tone). |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum number submailboxes that can be partitioned from a VMUIF main mailbox? |
|
Definition
| Up to eight submailboxes. |
|
|
Term
| What is a typical administration configuration for the MSM administration and maintenance interface? |
|
Definition
| One main system administration terminal and up to three MATs. |
|
|
Term
| How is remoted administration access activated in the administration and maintenance interface? |
|
Definition
| From the main system administration terminal. |
|
|
Term
| Why did the NTSC decide to shift the R-Y and B-Y signals 33 degrees counterclockwise? |
|
Definition
| To place the R-Y signal on the axis of maximum visual acuity and the B-Y signal on the axis of minimum visual acuity. |
|
|
Term
| What were the bandwidths and limitations of the R-Y and B-Y signals, and what were the shifted signals called? |
|
Definition
| R-Y is called the I signal for in-phase and its bandwidth is limited to 1.5 MHz. B-Y is called the Q signal for quadrature and its bandwidth is limited to 0.5 MHz. |
|
|
Term
| List the functions of the encoder. |
|
Definition
| Derive the luminance (brightness) signal, derive the I and Q signals, use I and Q to modulate a suppressed subcarrier balanced modulator to represent hue and saturation, combine the luminance and chrominance signals, and add sync and burst to the combined luminance and chrominance signal. |
|
|
Term
| Name the five components of the NTSC color video signal. |
|
Definition
| Luminance, chroma, blanking, sync, colorburst. |
|
|
Term
| What digital broadcasting system was adopted as a standard in the United States? |
|
Definition
| Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) |
|
|
Term
| What type of modulation is used in ATSC? |
|
Definition
| 8-vestigial sideband technique |
|
|
Term
| Name the format used by ATSC to provide 5.1 channel surround sound. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the advantage of OFDM. |
|
Definition
| Reduces the amount of interference caused by multipath. |
|
|
Term
| Explain video tape recording. |
|
Definition
| It is a means of storing information in a memory device wherein the memory is provided by a series of magnetic patterns on tape. |
|
|
Term
| What type of function is the playback process? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A VTR head can be compared to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Before being applied to the head, the incoming signal in a recorder is converted to what type of waveform? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the four signals recorded on tape. |
|
Definition
| One video track, two audio tracks, and a control track. |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum recording and/or playback time allowed by the Betacam SP format? |
|
Definition
| 90 minutes a large cassette. |
|
|
Term
| List some of the advantages of digital video recording. |
|
Definition
| Superior image quality and the ability to dupe down unlimited generations (called cloning in the digital world), to edit layer upon layer of effects without quality loss, and to record in one TV standard and accurately reproduce in a different standard. |
|
|
Term
| List the three conversion methods available when working with digital video. |
|
Definition
| Analog-to-digital (A/D); digital-to-analog (D/A); and digital-to-digital (D/D) |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the D/A converter? |
|
Definition
| To change the binary data stream back into the continuous electrical waveform that the binary data stream represents. |
|
|
Term
| What format is used in D2 digital recording? |
|
Definition
| A 4 fsc sampling frequenchy with 8-bit quantizing. |
|
|
Term
| What are the benefits of XDCAM recording in MPEG HD format? |
|
Definition
| The data can quickly be transferred over computer networks and easily edited in the field with a laptop computer and made readily available to a wide variety of applications. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main benefit of having time counters in VTRs? |
|
Definition
| Timesaver that enables the operator or editor to find a specific clip and/or segment at a later time. |
|
|
Term
| What GVG-110 system allows you to insert titles or other video scenes into a full screen background scene? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can you use to fill an effects key when using the GVG-110? |
|
Definition
| Key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal. |
|
|
Term
| What type of downstream keys can you use to layer over the picture coming out of the effects keyer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the GVG-110 effects memory? |
|
Definition
| Store effects for recall later. |
|
|
Term
| How many effects storage registers are there in the GVG-110 switcher? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What circuit re-inserts reference blanking into the program output to prevent noisy sync in the GVG-110? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the GVG-110 GPI? |
|
Definition
| Allows remote control of transitions. |
|
|
Term
| What allows a personal computer or digital picture manipulator to remote control all of the switcher's functions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The VDA is designed for what type of video signal? |
|
Definition
| 75 ohm composite video signal. |
|
|
Term
| The VDA is capable of how much gain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The high frequency speaker is adjusted to maintain flat response through what frequency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which stage of the VDA has the provision for delay adjustment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the output driver of the DA, what assures a linear operating characteristic? |
|
Definition
| The generous amount of feedback |
|
|
Term
| What is a head-end system? |
|
Definition
| The beginning of a cable system. |
|
|
Term
| State the purpose of head-end system. |
|
Definition
| Master facility that receives television signal for processing and distribution over a cable television infrastructure. |
|
|
Term
| What device is used to combine the different channel inputs received into one output for distribution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What device is used to make up cable losses in the line? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What factors should you take into consideration when planning the installation of an IDS? |
|
Definition
| Equipment capabilities and limitations, mission criticality, and threat to the resources that are to be protected. |
|
|
Term
| What must a line of detection detect? |
|
Definition
| A person walking, running, rolling, crawling across, or jumping through the line of detection. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main purpose of a boundary fence? |
|
Definition
| To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry. |
|
|
Term
| What does a clear zone consist of? |
|
Definition
| A 30 foot area inside and outside the site perimeter fence. |
|
|
Term
| Why does the area lighting need to illuminate the interior of the restricted area? |
|
Definition
| To help personnel detect and track intruders. |
|
|
Term
| How does an IDS assist SF capabilities? |
|
Definition
| Increase the detection capability by alerting security personnel to an approach, intrusion, or attempted intrusion. |
|
|
Term
| What type of system should the installed IDS be? |
|
Definition
| A "closed" system, not allowing access from external source. |
|
|
Term
| What is the point from which control of personnel and vehicle entry is conducted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many hours of battery power are needed to operate sensor, alarm, delay/denial, and communication components in case of an AC power failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What sensors provide an early detection and near real-time assessment to any attempt to penetrate the perimeter security system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the primary parts of the AN/GSS-39 system? |
|
Definition
| Main control panel, mixture of sensors, and associated equipment. |
|
|
Term
| When the SPCDS annunciator is used in the IIDS, what control unit should be used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What information can be obtained from the ZIPS? |
|
Definition
| What sensors have gone into alarm since it was last reset. |
|
|
Term
| Why is the model TROS 8/4 multiplexer used with the STAS and SMAS instead of the Advisor VIII? |
|
Definition
| Multiplexers are standard equipment with these annunciators and directly interface with them. |
|
|
Term
| What are the IIDS's primary AC power requirements? |
|
Definition
| 115 or 220 VAC; through a step-down transformer to the 12 VDC power supply. |
|
|
Term
| What is the frequency of the tamper alarm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a dual-phenomenology sensor? |
|
Definition
| One that uses a combination of microwave and passive infrared sensors in the same physical circuit and housing. |
|
|
Term
| How many feet of coverage does the DR-301, PIR sensor provide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many frequencies are there in a SD80DC microwave sensor and what is the minimum and maximum frequency range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum and maximum range of control, in feet, for the PIRAMID sensor, model SDI-76? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum coverage, field of view, and number of beams of an SDI-76 sensor equipped with the standard high-density lense? |
|
Definition
| 75 x 75 feet; 100 degrees; 24 beams |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between the FPS-2 and FPT-2-2R? |
|
Definition
| The FPS-2 is single channel and can cover up to 100 meers, the FPS-2-2R has two 100-meter zones |
|
|
Term
| What has been done to the FPS cables to help detect cuts or shorts? |
|
Definition
| A megohm resistor is placed in the end of line termination kit. |
|
|
Term
| In a typical Air Force installation, how much area can the E-Flex II cover? |
|
Definition
| Up to 1,000 feet (300 meters) |
|
|
Term
| How, if at all, can cutting of the E-Flex II cable be detected? |
|
Definition
| If the cable is cut, the resistance drops and causes a supervision tamper alarm. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the TWSs? |
|
Definition
| To detect an intruder climbing over or through the barbed wire of a security fence. |
|
|
Term
| What tension should be maintained on the TWSs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum allowable distance the barbed wire can be pulled before an alarm is generated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal length of a VTWS sensor sector? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of IR technology does the Birdseye use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many sensors does a typical Birdseye sector transmit/receive pole contain? |
|
Definition
| 18, the transmit pole contains six transmitters and three receivers, and the receive pole has six receivers and three transmitters. |
|
|
Term
| How does the detection pattern change, if a sector is set up to cover an area of 175 feet instead of 125 feet? |
|
Definition
| Each transmitted beam is sent to two receivers. |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum intrusion detection barrier length that an IPIDS system can provide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For how long will a generated alarm signal remain active on the IPIDS? |
|
Definition
| Two seconds, or as long as the beam is broken. |
|
|
Term
| How can the MFS detect intruders? |
|
Definition
| By an intruder breaking the beam or by multipath return signal. |
|
|
Term
| Normally how many MFSs are used to establish a microwave line-of-sight detection sector? |
|
Definition
| Two (one transmitter and oce receiver). |
|
|
Term
| Describe the subcarrier frequency in an MFS. |
|
Definition
| Amplitude modulation frequency that can be set to 3, 5, 8, or 13 kHz. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the mulitpath/amplifier detector? |
|
Definition
| It looks for increases in the fluctuation level of this signal caused by an intruder disturbance of the multipath field and generates an alarm when fluctuations are large enough. |
|
|
Term
| The P-MUX provides what functions? |
|
Definition
| Multiplexing and demultiplexing of aggregate signals. |
|
|
Term
| What are the different categories of cards found in the Promina Multiplexer? |
|
Definition
| Common Equipment, Voice Cards, Data Cards, Trunk Cards, Server Cards. |
|
|
Term
| What is the C-Bus used for? |
|
Definition
| For communication with the other cards in the Promina. |
|
|
Term
| The PLM's flash memory provides the data storage of what? |
|
Definition
| The boot code, system software and configuration database. |
|
|
Term
| The USD card's port 0 can be used for what purpose? |
|
Definition
| To accept an external clock for network synchronization. |
|
|
Term
| The purpose of the Primary Rate Card is to: |
|
Definition
| Provide and manage incoming and outgoing calls to the network. |
|
|
Term
| Symmetric trunk operation means: |
|
Definition
| Both directions of the trunk (transmit and receive) operate at the same bit rate and all calls that traverse the trunk are symmetric and full duplex. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the CM? |
|
Definition
| To perform the function of encrypting and decrypting digital traffic coming into and going out of the TDC ICAP network, converting the traffic to and from NRZ/CDI for compatibility with TRI-TAC, Reachback and internal ICAP equipment, receiving GPS timing for the external timing interface of the P-Mux. |
|
|
Term
| The Crypto module is typically found where in the TDC network? |
|
Definition
| Located between the P-Mux and the ground satellite terminal. |
|
|
Term
| The TrueTime Xli/Zypher GPS receiver can provide what range of clock rates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the differences between the KIV 19 and the KIV 19A? |
|
Definition
| The KIV 19A provides enhanced features that enable configuration of the local strap settings using the control panel. |
|
|
Term
| Why is the CV 8448 necessary? |
|
Definition
| Because data interfaces like the EIA-530 are designed for short interoffice connections and the 25 wire cables used for this standard are too bulky for long distance tactical use. |
|
|
Term
| What application does the FCC-100 Tactical Module have in the TDC network? |
|
Definition
| To provide low rate communications channels to smaller sites. |
|
|
Term
| What services does the FCC-100 provide? |
|
Definition
| It can serve as a long local telephone channel for TRI-TAC devices or common two-wire desk telephones or fax machines, and for NRZ or CDI data channels. |
|
|
Term
| What task does the CIM normally perform in the TDC network? |
|
Definition
| Acts as the external router for either the secure or non-secure data network in TDC. |
|
|
Term
| The Cisco 3640 and 3745 modular routers provide what for the ICAP data backbone? |
|
Definition
| Connectivity between the classified or unclassified ICAP IP backbone network and exterior data networks. |
|
|
Term
| What devices are compatible with the KIV-7HS/HSB? |
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Definition
| KIV-7 HS/HSB, KIV-7 or KG84 series of encryption devices. |
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Term
| When is the CV 2048-M/CV 8448-D used? |
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Definition
| When the CIM and the P-Mux are not collocated. |
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Term
| What are the primary components of the Basic Access Module v3? |
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Definition
| The REDCOM IGX-C and a pair of CISCO Ethernet Switches. |
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Term
| What role does the BAM play in the deployed TDC network? |
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Definition
| To provide voice and data access for approximately 50 uses in a single location. |
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Term
| What cards are required for operation of the REDCOM IGX-C Circuit switch? |
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Definition
| The Modular Switching Unit (MSU), Expanded Timeslot Interchange Board (ETSI), and Ringing Generator Card. |
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Term
| What is the main limiting factor in the configuration of the IGX switch? |
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Definition
| The limited number of timeslots is the biggest limiting factor of the IGX. |
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Term
| How does stacking work with the Avaya Prologix switch? |
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Definition
| The Prologix switch can only be stacked in pairs, with the second switch in the stack acting as a pair of expansion shelves with no processing capability. |
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Term
| What signaling can the Avaya DS1 card be configured to support? |
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Definition
| Dual Tone Multi-frequency, Multi-frequency and Primary Rate Interface. |
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Term
| What purpose does the tactical interface gateway serve? |
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Definition
| Works in conjunction with the Avaya Prologix switch to provide backwards compatibility with TRI-TAC devices such as tactical radios, DNVT and DSVTs. |
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Term
| What are the Cisco switches in the BAM used for? |
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Definition
| The switches in the BAM are used to connect workstations and other network devices (servers and other switches and routers). |
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Term
| What is the normal data path for the Red Data Module to send traffic to a SIPRNet user on the TDC network? |
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Definition
| SIPRNet traffic comes through the Promina multiplexer as an encrypted data circuit. This traffic would then pass through the KIV-7HS/HSB to be decrypted. After passing through the KIV and router in the CIM, the decrypted IP traffic is routed to the TACLANE which then encrypts each IP frame before sending it through black network to the client RDM. The client RDM then decrypts the frames for reception by the SIPRNet user. |
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Term
| What type of encryption does the TACLANE utilize? |
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Definition
| Ethernet frame encryption. |
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Term
| The MRV console server provides what service? |
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Definition
| Secure remote configuration and management of TDC modules. |
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Term
| What components make up the Next Generation Receive Terminal? |
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Definition
| The NGRT is made up of the reflector dish, tracking receiver and pedestal motor assembly with tripod. |
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Term
| What purpose does the STRC have in the Air Force IP Receive Suite? |
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Definition
| The STRC contains all the computer elements required for operating the NGRT, including initial heading settings for satellite acquisition and test circuitry for troubleshooting. |
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Term
| What is the function of the RBM? |
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Definition
| The RBM receives data streams sent by the satellite through the NGRT and relay that information to the subscribers connected to the terminal. |
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Term
| What is the differnce in function of the type 1 and type 2 RBM? |
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Definition
| The type one RBM deals with military specific and classified data, while the type two handles commercial and unclassified traffic. |
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Term
| What does the video converter in the RBM do? |
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Definition
| The video converter takes an input signal and converts it to an NTSC standard video signal. |
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Term
| What is the difference in equipment between the type one and type two RBM? |
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Definition
| The type 1 RBM contains a crypto unit to decrypt the military specific information carried in the data feed from the type 2 RBM. The type 2 RBM contains and IRD to extract data content from the incoming video stream and to transmit that data to an Ethernet switch for distribution. The IRD also descrambles the video content before processing. |
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Term
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Definition
| A request for communications service from a user to DISA. |
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Term
|
Definition
| A request to staff, stop, or change circuits, trunks, links, or systems. |
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Term
| What is the purpose of a TSO? |
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Definition
| To authorize activations, deactivations, or changes in circuits, trunks, links, or systems. It also gives the O&M agencies authority to procure equipment. |
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Term
| Who normally receives TSOs? |
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Definition
| All DII stations that a trunk or circuit traverses, the designated DII control office, the leasing agency (if applicable), and other DISA area offices if the trunk or circuit enters their area. Information copies of the TSO are sent to the O&M agency, the TCO and the user of the circuit or trunk. |
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Term
| What does a SAM identify? |
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Definition
| Time for installation of the leased service at your facility, contract service completion, delay in service, contractor supplies information (that is, reference number, cost, service date), any additional information that is required. |
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Term
| Where do you look to determine circuit requirements of circuits composed entirely of government-owned factilities? |
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Definition
| DISAC 300-175-9, DII Technical Schedules. |
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Term
| The TSO issuing authority keeps current listings of circuits accepted for service that do not meet required parameters and ensures what? |
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Definition
| Outstanding exceptions are cleared at the earliest possible date. |
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Term
| A TSO designated DII facility must do what for initial acceptance of a leased circuit? |
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Definition
(1) Ensure that leased circuit segments meet all circuit parameters for the ToS specified in the TSO.
(2) Contact the TSO issuing authority when the carrier fails to meet all required circuit parameters. |
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Term
| List the three types of reports used by the CCO for circuit activation. |
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Definition
| In-effect, exception, and delayed service. |
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Term
| What is the purpose of the trend analysis program? |
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Definition
| The program trends the number of outages, outage times, reason for outage, calculate availability and reliability, and determine if circuit reliability meets MT on a monthly calendar basis. |
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Term
| When are outages analyzed to determine if corrective actions are required? |
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Definition
| Anytime a link, trunk, or circuit fails monthly MT. |
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Term
| Who do you notify when a circuit fails MT for three or more consecutive months? |
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Definition
| The CCO, or servicing SCF/PTF, should notify the appropriate LCC/NCO and O&M command of all links, trunks, and circuit that fail MT for three or more consecutive months. |
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Term
| How many character positions are there in a trunk identifier? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Which position of a trunk identifier would indicate the receive side area of a trunk? |
|
Definition
| Second position, the "To" area. |
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|
Term
| What publication can you use to locate the codes of trunk identifiers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which position of a trunk number indicates the type of trunk or media? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a CCSD? |
|
Definition
| To provide each circuit a specific identity for reporting and status keeping. |
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Term
| What position and part of a CCSD contains the type of circuit identified? |
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Definition
| Fourth position, third part. |
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Term
| What are the two classes of CCSDs? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Who has responsiblity for constructing and assigning temporary CCSDs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two parts of the TSP restoration priority code? |
|
Definition
(1) TSP provisioning priority field
(2) TSP restoration priority field |
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Term
| When restoring circuits, what type of facility do you use first? |
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Definition
| Use all available spare channels first |
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