Term
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Definition
| It is the smallest unit of information (data) a computer can process; a "1" or "0." |
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Term
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Definition
| It is a preset sequence of bits that is arranged and understood by the sender and receiver. |
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Term
| A code set of 10 bits has how many possible combinations? |
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Definition
| A code set of 10 bits represents 1024 possible choices. |
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Term
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Definition
| A set of bits (ones and zeros) of a specific length that represents a value in a computer coding scheme. |
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Term
| Normally, how long is a byte? |
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Definition
| Normally bytes are 8 (binary) data bits in length. |
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Term
| What term is used in networking when referring to 8 bits of information? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the ANSI's main focus? |
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Definition
| ANSI focuses on standards used by the software and hardware vendors who make the products the software engineer uses. |
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Term
| What role does EIA serve? |
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Definition
| Enables US electronics producers to be competitive by developing technical standards, hosting tradeshows and seminars, performing market analysis, and facilitating relations with the government. |
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Term
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Definition
| A government organization providing services and programs to help US industries commercialize new technologies and compete internationally. |
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Term
| Which organizations' specifications are supported by ANSI? |
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Definition
| Electronic Industries Alliance and Telecommunications Industry Association |
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Term
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Definition
| A European body for telecommunication policy making and regulation. |
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Term
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Definition
| It develops the telecommunications standards for Europe. |
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Term
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Definition
| The digital telecommunications services backbone system of Europe. |
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Term
| The IETF tracks ideas or suggestions. What are these ideas and suggestions called? |
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Definition
| Request for comments (RFC). |
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Term
| What organization assumed responsibility for the IP address space allocation? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are some of the Project 802 standards? |
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Definition
| 802.1: Internetworking Standards; 802.2: The LLC layer; 802.3: Ethernet; 802.4: Token Bus; 802.5: Token Ring; 802.6: MAN; 802.7: Broadband Technologies; 802.8: Fiber-Optic Technologies; 802.9: Integrated Voice/Data Networks; 802.10: Network Security Standards and Technologies; 802.11: Wireless Networking Technologies and Standards; 802.12: Demand Priority Saccess Technologies; 802.13: Cable Television Access |
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Term
| What organization was known as the International Telegraph and Telephone Consultative? |
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Definition
| The ITU Telecommunications Standardization Sector, or ITU-T. |
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Term
| List some X-series standards that you may encounter. |
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Definition
| X.20, X.20 bis, X.21, X.21 bis, X.25, X.400, and X.500 |
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Term
| List the V-series standards that you may encounter. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are three distinct specifications that the RS-232-C standard meets? |
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Definition
| (1) Type of connector, (2) purpose and definition of connector pins, and (3) electrical characteristics of those pins. |
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Term
| The RS-232-C pins can be easily understood by knowing how they are grouped. What are the different categories? |
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Definition
| Data, clock, control, common or ground leads. |
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Term
| What is the function of RS-232-C data leads? |
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Definition
| They are those pins that carry the data intelligence from the DTE to the DCE and vice versa. They are divided into two categories: primary channel and secondary channel. |
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Term
| What is the function of the RS-232-C clock leads? |
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Definition
| They provide "clock" or "timing" for the data transmission synchronization. |
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Term
| What is the function of the RS-232-C control leads? |
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Definition
| Control leads are used to enable and disable data transmission and reception; they are also used to indicate the operational status and condition of the DTE and DCE. |
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Term
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Definition
| RTS-Pin 4, CTS-Pin 5, DSR-Pin 6, DTR-Pin 20, and Received Line Signal Detector (Carrier Detector-CD)-Pin 8. |
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Term
| What is the function of the RS-232-C Protective Ground --Pin 1? |
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Definition
| This ground connection keeps you from getting shocked when you touch the equipment. |
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Term
| What is the function of the RS-232-C Common (Signal) Ground -- Pin 7? |
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Definition
| This ground establishes a common reference for all interchange circuits except pin 1. |
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Term
| What are the two categories that the OSI model can be divided into? |
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Definition
| Application and Data transport layers. |
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Term
| What are the four lower layers of the OSI model responsible for? |
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Definition
| They are responsible for defining how data is sent across the physical media, throug internetwork devices, to the destination computer, and to the application on the destination machine. |
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Term
| At what layers of the OSI model do LAN protocols operate? |
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Definition
| They operate at the network and data link layers of the OSI model and define communication over the various LAN media. |
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Term
| At what layers do WAN protocols operate? |
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Definition
| At the lowest three layers (network, data link and physical) of the OSI model and define communication over the various wide-area media. |
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Term
| What is the difference between routing and routed protocols? |
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Definition
| Routing protocols are responsible for path determination and traffic switching and routed protocols are responsible for preparing the data to be placed onto the network media. In essence, routing protocols route routed protocols. |
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Term
| With the exception of the layers on each end, what OSI model layers does each layer communicate with? |
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Definition
| With the peer layer in other network devices and the layers directly above and below. |
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Term
| What are the two forms of control information typically used to exchange communications between peer OSI layers. |
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Definition
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Term
| What is known as encapsulation as it relates to the OSI model? |
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Definition
| The data portion of an information unit at a given OSI layer can potentially contain headers, trailers, and data from all the higher layers. |
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Term
| The asynchronous data communications protocol data frames use what for synchronization? |
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Definition
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Term
| What three elements of the message block (frame) format can be contained in each BSC transmission? |
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Definition
| A header, the text, and a trailer. |
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Term
| All BOP transmissions in a link follow the frame format. The frame consists of what fields? |
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Definition
| Start flag field, Station address field, Control field, Data Information field, Frame check sequence, and Close Flag field. |
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Term
| In HDLC, what is used so the receiving station can determine if the data is information or a flag indicating the end of a frame? |
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Definition
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Term
| What network is an informal collection of government, military, commercial, and educational computer networks that all interconnected and transmit information? |
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Definition
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Term
| A LAN may serve how many users? |
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Definition
| A LAN may serve as few as two or three users or as many as thousands of users. |
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Term
| What type of network is also used as a means to interconnect several local area networks by bridging them with backbone lines? |
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Definition
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Term
| What network provides a private tunnel through the internet? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the advantages of using peer-to-peer network? |
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Definition
| Advantages of using a peer-to-peer network are: that they're easy to configure, don't require additional server hardware and software, users can manage their own resources, they don't require a network administrator, and they reduce cost. |
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Term
| What are the disadvantages of client/server networks? |
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Definition
| The disadvantages of client/server networks include: planning, design, and management are complicated; managing servers requires dedicated staff; and server hardware and software are expensive. |
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Term
| The easiest way to break down the many protocols of the TCP/IP suite is according to where they operate within the OSI model. Each protocol in this stack operates at one of what four layers? |
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Definition
| The Data Link, Network (also known as the Internet layer in TCP/IP model), Transport or Application layer. |
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Term
| The protocols at the Data Link layer define the access method for the media, the architecture, and interface with the Physical layer of the network based on what protocol standards? |
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Definition
| The standards that have been adopted by the IEEE as the Project 802 standards. |
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Term
| What are the four most important TCP/IP protocols that function within the network layer? |
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Definition
| The IP, ARP, RARP, and ICMP. |
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Term
| Within the IP, what are the datagram fields? |
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Definition
| Version, IHL, DiffServ Field, Total length, Identification, Flags, Fragment offset, TTL, Protocol, Header checksum, Source IP address, Destination IP address, Options, Padding, and Data. |
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Term
| What fields belong to a TCP segment? |
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Definition
| Source port, Destination port, Sequence number, ACK, TCP header length, Reserved, Flags, Sliding-window size (or window), Checksum, Urgent pointer, Options, Padding, and Data. |
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Term
| What are some reasons for implementing DHCP? |
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Definition
| To reduce the time and planning spent on IP address management, to reduce the potential for errors in assigning IP addresses, to enable users to move their workstations and printers without having to change their TCP/IP configuration, and to make IP addressing transparent for mobile users. |
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Term
| Between what layers do the application layer protocols reside? |
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Definition
| Between the Session and Application layer of the OSI model. |
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Term
| What's the difference between File Transfer Protocol (FTP) and Trivial File Transfer Protocol? |
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Definition
| TFTP uses UDP which means it doesn't guarantee deliverability, FTP use TCP. |
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Term
| What protocol is responsible for matching a host name to an IP address? |
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Definition
| Domain Name System (DNS). |
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|
Term
| What utility sends out Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) requests in hopes to get an ICMP echo reply? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which IP address is a 32-bit number, usually represented as a four-part decimal number, with each of the four parts separated by a period or decimal point? |
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Definition
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Term
| IP addresses with a first octet from 192 to 223 are part of what IPv4 class? |
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Definition
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Term
| What two questions must you ask yourself during the selection of a subnet mask? |
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Definition
| How many routed subnets are required on the network and what is the likely maximum number of hosts on any one of those subnets? |
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Term
| Nowadays, what protocol is likely employed for subnetting large networks? |
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Definition
| A protocol supporting variable length subnet masking. |
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Term
| What type of routing protocols supports VLSM? |
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Definition
| Classless routing protocols. |
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Term
| What are some examples of classless routing protocols? |
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Definition
| OSPF, RIP version 2, Cisco's EIGRP, BGP, IS-IS. |
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Term
| How many bits are in an IPv6 address? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| How many sets of 16 bit sections make up an IPv6 address? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What unique part of a network device is used when acquiring an IPv6 address by way of autoconfiguration? |
|
Definition
| The Media Access Control (MAC) address. |
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Term
| What does it mean to have dual stack router? |
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Definition
| The router has both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols running on it. |
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Term
| What IPv4 protocol is needed to tunnel IPv6? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the IPv6 two tunneling classes? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which IPv6 transition approach doesn't require a dual stack router? |
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Definition
| Network Address Translation-Protocol Translation (NAT-PT). |
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Term
| Transceivers are capable of operating in what modes? |
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Definition
| Transcievers are capable of operating in full duplex, half duplex, and simplex mode. |
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Term
| At what layer of the OSI model do transceivers operate and how are they used? |
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Definition
| They operate at the Physical layer of the OSI model and are used in Ethernet networks to connect a device to fiber or copper cable. |
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Term
| What device can be viewed as the actual interface between workstations, servers, clients, and the shared media of the network? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Nearly all NICs contain what device that transmits and receives data signals? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What is one way repeaters overcome attenuation? |
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Definition
| Repeaters remove the unwanted noise in an incoming signal. |
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Term
| What do all devices on a network share when connected to a hub? |
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Definition
| They share the same amount of bandwidth and the same collision domain. |
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Term
| What are the three central hub classifications? |
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Definition
| Passive, Active, and Intelligent. |
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Term
| What are some advantages of switches? |
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Definition
| Switches have an internal processor, an operating system, memory, and several ports that enable other nodes to connect to it; have multiple ports and can make better use of of limited bandwidth and prove more cost-efficient than bridges; each port on the switch acts like a bridge, and each device connected to a switch effectively receives its own dedicated channel; and a switch limits the number of devices in a collision domain, it limits the potential for collisions. |
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Term
| What are some disadvantages of switches? |
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Definition
| Although they contain buffers to hold incoming data and accomodate bursts of traffic, they can become overwhelmed by continuous, heavy traffic. In that event, the switch cannot prevent data loss. |
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Term
| Why would you replace a backbone router with a switch? |
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Definition
| Because a switch provides at least two advantages: better security and better performance. |
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Term
| What are the four types of switching devices? |
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Definition
| Cut-through, Store and forward, Hybrid and Fragment-free. |
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Term
| Hybrid switches represent a combination of what switching devices? |
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Definition
| Cut-through and store and forward switches. |
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Term
| What is a major advantage of a hybrid switch? |
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Definition
| Its minimal latency when error rates are low and it becomes a store and forward when error rates rise, allowing it to discard frames when error rates get high. |
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Term
| Routers operate at what layer of the OSI model? |
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Definition
| Routers operate at the Network layer (Layer 3). |
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Term
| What does a typical router contain? |
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Definition
| A typical router has an internal processor, an operating system, memory, input and output jacks for different types of network connectors (depending on the network type), and usually, a management console interface. |
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Term
| What tasks can all routers do? |
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Definition
All routers can: connect dissimilar networks, interpret Layer 3 addressing and other information (such as quality of service indicators), determine the best path for data to follow from point A to point B, and reroute traffic if a primary path is down but another path is available.
Routers may optionally perform the following: filter out broadcast transmissions to alleviate network congestion, prevent certain types of traffic from getting to a network, enabling customized segregation and security, support simultaneous local and remote connectivity, provide high network fault tolerance through redundant components such as power supplies or network interfaces, monitor network traffic and report statistics, and diagnose internal or other connectivity problems and trigger alarms. |
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Term
| Identify and define the four common routing protocols. |
|
Definition
RIP--The oldest routing protocol is an interior routing protocol, meaning that it is used on interior or border routers. RIP does not work ell in very large network environments; RIP is slower and less secure.
OSPF--Used on interior or border routers; OSPF uses a more complex algorithm for determining best paths. In OSPF, each router maintains a database of the other routers' links, and if notice is received indicating the failure of a given link, the router can rapidly compute an alternate path. OSPF is supported by all modern routers. Therefore, it is commonly used on LANs that rely on a mix of routers from different manufacturers.
EIGRP--Used on interior or border routers, was developed in the mid-1980s by Cisco Systems. It has a fast convergence time and a low network overhead, and is easier to configure and less CPU-intensive than OSPF. EIGRP also offers the benefits of supporting multiple protocols and limiting unnecessary network traffic between routers. It accomodates very large and heterogenous networks, but is only supported by Cisco routers. On LANs that use exclusively Cisco routers, EIGRP is generally preferred over OSPF.
BGP--Used on border and exterior routers. |
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Term
|
Definition
| As the name suggests, it is a device that's a cross or hybrid between bridges and routers. |
|
|
Term
| Where can a Gateway reside? |
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Definition
| Gateways can reside on servers, microcomputers, connectivity devices (such as routers), or mainframes. |
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Term
| What are some popular types of gateways? |
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Definition
| Popular types of gateways include e-mail gateway, IBM host gateway, internet gateway, LAN gateway, voice/data gateway, and firewall. |
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|
Term
| What do VPN concentrators create to extend a network? |
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Definition
| VPNs create tunnels using secure connections across a network such as the Internet. |
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Term
| What function does a VPN concentrator perform? |
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Definition
| VPN concentrators establishes tunnels, negotiates tunnel parameters, authenticates users, assigns user addresses, encrypts and decrypts data, manages security keys, manages data transfer across the tunnel manages data transfer inbound and outbound as a tunnel endpoint or router, and invokes various standard protocols to accomplish these functions. |
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|
Term
| What is the purpose of a TDR? |
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Definition
| It uses pulses to locate and test for sheath faults, damaged conductors, loose connectors, splices, bridge taps, split pairs and other problems. |
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|
Term
| What type of cable discrepancies can be detected by a TDR? |
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Definition
| Opens, shorts, and pin holes in cable shielding, kinks, and mismatched or corroded cable connectors. |
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|
Term
| How does the OTDR use "backscattered" light to make measurements? |
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Definition
| It correlates the returned light pulses with a location in the fiber. |
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Term
| What determines the amount of light-pulse power that is transmitted down the cable? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What function of the cable scanner shows the manner in which each wire is mated to connectors at both ends of the cable? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What are the primary capabilities provided by a protocol analyzer? |
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Definition
| Digital network diagnostics and software development. |
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Term
| Explain the difference between a protocol analyzer NIC and other NICs. |
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Definition
| The NIC in a protocol analyzer is configured to process all frames; oher NICs only process broadcast frames and frames with its MAC address. |
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Term
| What function of the protocol analyzer excludes specific types of frames? |
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Definition
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Term
| List four types of specific occurrences that can be displayed by counters. |
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Definition
| Any four of the following: packets transmitted, CRC errors, undersize packets, oversize packets, ARP requests, collisions, and bit errors. |
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|
Term
| What menu is best used to report errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad FCS, short frames, and jabbers? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What kind of information does the connection statistics menu provide? |
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Definition
| Connection statistics provide information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes. |
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Term
| Identify the three types of active tests that are conducted with a protocol analyzer |
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Definition
| Ping, trace route, and traffic generator. |
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|
Term
| MIBs contain a set of managed objects. How are they identified? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What two things may an MIB be identified by? |
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Definition
| Its object name or object descriptor. |
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|
Term
| What TCP/IP ports are used by SNMP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four basic SNMP commands? |
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Definition
| Read, write, trap and traversal operations. |
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Term
| How does the NMS notify you of the occurence of a trigger event or alarm? |
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Definition
| It is identified by a change in the color of a device or link on the network map that is displayed on the NMS's monitor screen. |
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Term
| What must be done to each managed device on the network so that it provides data to the NNM? |
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Definition
| Each managed device on the network must be individually configured for SNMP. |
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|
Term
| Which NNM menu includes the SNMP MIB browser selection? |
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Definition
| The Tools menu from any network map. |
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Term
| Which NNM submenu do you use to start the data collection process? |
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Definition
| The NNM's Data Collection and Threshold submenu. |
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|
Term
| Which NNM submenu do you use to change alarm thresholds? |
|
Definition
| The NNM's Data Collection and Threshold submenu. |
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Term
| Using the NNM, what are the steps involved in printing performance graphs? |
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Definition
| Performance graphs can be printed by selecting File and Print from the Graph window. |
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Term
| Name and describe the four types of reports that can be created using the report templates? |
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Definition
| An availability report shows the percentage availability of the managed device's network interfaces; the exception report lists the threshold events that have been exceeded; an inventory report lists all the nodes that are in the MIB; and the performance report provides a summary table of statistical data for the managed device's network interfaces. |
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Term
| When configuring a report, what data intervals can you select? |
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Definition
| Data collection intervals are selected in 5-, 10-, or 15-minute intervals. |
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|
Term
| What is the name of the Air Force initiative that defines and drives network information security? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the basic stance of the network security policy? |
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Definition
| To allow all unauthorized traffic and deny all else. |
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|
Term
| What does the classic "Defense in Depth" approach to security require you to do? |
|
Definition
| Minimize the exposure of your protective assets as much as possible. |
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|
Term
| What service is essential to network security and must not be susceptible to spoofing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common form of a proxy for common services? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an adverse event that threatens some element of computer security such as loss of data? |
|
Definition
| A computer security incident. |
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|
Term
| What results from a denial of service security incident? |
|
Definition
| Either a system is disabled or a worm has saturated network bandwidth. |
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|
Term
| What is used to protect and measure the security posture of information systems? |
|
Definition
| Information protection tools. |
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Term
| What is one of the primary functions of the NCC, and what are the purposes for that function? |
|
Definition
| System monitoring; it verifies that the system is operational and makes sure that the system is being operated within the parameters established by network security policy and the DAA. |
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|
Term
| What is internal control? |
|
Definition
| Internal control defines the various mechanisms employed to provide internal system security. They may include but are not limited to access control methods, system identification and authentication programs, and system configuration. |
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Term
| What two possible security postures are used based on the information you want to protect, system usability, and the cost of required security measures? |
|
Definition
| "Default deny" posture and "Open" posture. |
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Term
| Information security-related access controls fall into what two categories? |
|
Definition
| Technical controls, such as passwords and encryption that are part of normal network security, and administrative controls, such as segregation of duties and security screening of users. |
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|
Term
| What are one-time passwords? |
|
Definition
| Passwords used only once and change for each user access session. |
|
|
Term
| What does Biometrics refer to? |
|
Definition
| An identification process based physical or behavioral characteristics unique to a user, such as fingerprints; keystroke patterns; patterns associated with the voice, retina, or iris; and facial characteristics. |
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|
Term
| What agency approves high-robustness encryption? |
|
Definition
| The National Secuiry Agency. |
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|
Term
| What must be employed to preclude unauthorized use of legitimate identification and authentication data? |
|
Definition
| Network anti-spoofing capability. |
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|
Term
| How is an IDS used in relation to a firewall? |
|
Definition
| An IDS complements a firewall and provides additional protection, particularly against threats originating from outside the firewall. |
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|
Term
| What are some examples of an intrusion a firewall might miss but IDS might catch? |
|
Definition
| Tunneling or application based attacks. |
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|
Term
| Of what does a firewall physically consist? |
|
Definition
| One or more routers and host machines with filtering software containing a series of rules that accept or reject packets of information, connection types or application specific communications attempting to cross the firewall. |
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|
Term
| What is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall, and what is its purpose? |
|
Definition
| Packet filtering firewall; to stop messages with inappropriate network addresses. |
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|
Term
| What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas? |
|
Definition
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