Term
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Definition
| A set of networks connected by routers |
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Term
| What does a heterogeneous network environment consist of? |
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Definition
| Computer systems from different vendors that run different OS and Communication protocols. |
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Term
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Definition
| A network of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same OS or NOS |
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Term
| Which type of network (homo vs hetero) is more common? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area? |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of network usually provides services for 2 to 10 users? |
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Definition
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Term
| How many users does a single server network normally service? |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of netowrk can service 1000+ users? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is used for addressing on a physically connected network to identify network nodes? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the numbering system that computers use to represent data? |
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Definition
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Term
| Within IP addressing, how many bits are used and how are they broken down? |
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Definition
| 32-bit IP address is broken into 4 sets of 8 bits |
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Term
| What mechanism is used to designate a part of an IP address as the network address, and other parts as the host address? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the primary reason for subnetting in IPv4? |
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Definition
| Improve efficency in using a limited number of available address spaces and to improve security |
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Term
| What bits in an IP address are routers mainly concerned with? |
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Definition
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Term
| What does AFPD-33-1, Information Resources Mangement, establishes policy on? |
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Definition
| responsibly acquiring, planning, and managing its information resources |
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Term
| AFI 33-104, Base-Level Planning and Implementation, outlines what actions? |
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Definition
| Standard management practices and tells how to manage planning and implementation of comm and info systems and the base level infrastructure |
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Term
| What are 3 areas of distibuted responsibilitiy does the DIICC consist of? |
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Definition
| Global, Regional and Local levels |
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Term
| What is Network Management (NM)? |
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Definition
| The systems management mechanism that monitors and controls data collection for the purpose of data analysis and report generation on an OSI-based communication network |
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Term
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Definition
| A bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity |
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Term
| Where should the NM server be located? |
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Definition
| Place the server itself in an area that is controlled strictly by the NCC |
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Term
| What are the 3 most common NM architectures? |
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Definition
| Centralized - 1 computer system at a location responsible for all NM duties |
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Term
| What are the 4 levels of activity that one must understand before applying management to specific services or devices> |
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Definition
| Inactive, Reactive, Interactive, Proactive |
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Term
| What is configuration management? |
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Definition
| The process of obtaining data from the network and using that data to manage setup all management netowrk devices |
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Term
| What are the two features built into an NMS that alleviate manually configuring a networks devices? |
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Definition
| Automatic Discovery and Auto -Mapping |
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Term
| What does performance management consist of? |
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Definition
| Consists of the facilities needed to evaluate behavior of network objective and effectiveness of comm activities |
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Term
| What are the two functional categories of performance management? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is Secuity Management? |
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Definition
| Protecting sensitive information on devices attached to a data network by controlling access points to that information |
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Term
| What are the 2 subsections of security management? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is fault management? |
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Definition
| The process of identifying, locating, and correcting network problems |
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Term
| What is the difference between a fault and an error? |
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Definition
| Faults - abnormal conditions require NCC to take action to correct or repair |
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Term
| What are some drawbacks to ICMP pinging as a NM tool? |
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Definition
| Unreliable delivery of packets. Need for polling, limited info derived from responses |
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Term
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Definition
| Hierarchical, structured format that defines the NM information available from network devices |
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Term
| What are the 2 parts of the labeled node? |
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Definition
| Object Identifier (OID) and Short text description |
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Term
| What are the 2 types of nodes that make up the MIB tree? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the differences between the 2 types of nodes that make of the MIB tree? |
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Definition
| Labeled - May have subordinate labled/leaf node |
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Term
| What are some examples of what a node in SNMP can represent? |
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Definition
| Workstation, client, network user, personal computer, server, printer, etc |
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Term
| Describe each of the 2 categories of SNMP. |
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Definition
| Manager - Uses the NM station to issue requests for information from managed nodes |
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Term
| What does the Get operation do? |
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Definition
| Retrieves the value of one specific instance of manag. information |
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Term
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Definition
| Unsolicited message from an agent to the manager |
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Term
| What are community names? |
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Definition
| Group that contains at least one agent and one management system |
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Term
| What are 2 types of community names? |
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Definition
| Read (Get) and Write (Set) |
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Term
| What do the two hierarchies provided by the CIM descirbe? |
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Definition
| Physical - Real world components |
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Term
| What are the 3 methods ofcreating a representation of a network topology within the domain managers repository? |
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Definition
| Auto Discovery, Manual and Topology Discover |
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Term
| What are the 3 main components of SMARTS? |
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Definition
| Domain Manager, Broker, Clients |
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Term
| What is the primary console in SMARTS and what does it display? |
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Definition
| Monitoring console - the results of the domain manager's correlation alrams |
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Term
| What are 2 factors that determine if a SMARTS map is opened with read-write access or with read-only access? |
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Definition
| 1- only 1 user can have a specific map opened with R&W access at any one time |
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Term
| What are the 3 types of notifications used in SMARTS? |
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Definition
| Problem, Compound Event, Symptomatic Event |
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Term
| What are the primary capabilities provieded by a protocol analyzer? |
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Definition
| to monitor the traffic on a segment or domain are collision at a time |
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Term
| What is the recommended minimum amount of time to acquire netowrk information to establish a performance baseline? |
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Definition
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Term
| What function of the protocal analyzer excludes specific type of frames? |
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Definition
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Term
| On the protocol analyzer, what menu isbest used to report errors that occur at thephysical layer such as bad FCS, short frames, and jabbers? |
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Definition
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Term
| On the protocol analyzer, what kind of information does the connection statistics menu provide? |
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Definition
| The bandwith utilization and the number of connections that related to specific nodes |
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Term
| What are the 3 types of active tests tha are conducted with a protocol analyzer? |
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Definition
| Ping, tracert, traffic generator |
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Term
| What is identification as it pertains to information protection? |
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Definition
| Proces of proving that a subject is what the subject claims to be |
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Term
| What is authentication as it pertains to information protection? |
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Definition
| A measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain informaiton |
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Term
| On an AF network, what is your passowrd requried to have in it? |
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Definition
| 9 characters long, 2 upper/lower, 2 numbers, and 2 special |
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Term
| Where are biometrics based authentication and identification generally used, and why? |
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Definition
| provide very high levels of security, more expensive, reserved for areas that require very high level of security |
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Term
| What is the biggest risk with a possession based system for identifying and authenticating yourself? |
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Definition
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Term
| Why would you use a combination of methods for identifying and authenticating yourself? |
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Definition
| substantially increase the security of an IA system |
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Term
| What are the 3 methods of providing strong authentication? |
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Definition
| Biometric & possession based, cryptographically protected, and using one time passwords |
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Term
| Where can you find specific guidance concernging remanence security? |
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Definition
| AFSSI 8580, Remanence Security |
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Term
| What is remancence security? |
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Definition
| the use of prescirbed safeguards and controls to prevent reconstruction/disclosure of sensitive/classfied information to persons who dont have prper clearance or need to know for the information |
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Term
| When something is sanitized, is it automatically declassified? |
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Definition
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Term
| Until when must you retain classification controls? |
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Definition
| until the media is sanitized, declassified, or destroyed in an approved manner |
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Term
| When does the information owner of storage media declassifiy the media? |
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Definition
| after the information owner provides evidence that no information resides on the media, the information owner can declassify the media by removing the classification markings |
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Term
| When is destroying storage media NOT necessary? |
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Definition
| If the media is sanitized and declassified |
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Term
| What must you ensure when you are degaussing storage media? |
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Definition
| coercivity strength of the magnetic field generated by the degausser is strong enough to return the mag media to its zero state |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| What is the biggest difference between DIACAP and previous processes? |
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Definition
| It tracks every IS and network from inception to retirement |
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Term
| What 2 publications provide the basic framework of the C&A process? |
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Definition
| IT lean reengineering process and AFI 33-210 |
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Term
| What is the SISSU checklist? |
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Definition
| consolidated list of requirements covering each of those areas that a program office must adhere to when developing and fielding a system |
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Term
| What are the most common AF circuit-enclaves? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the SIPRNET, and NIPRNET, and how does the SIPRNET differ from the NIPRNET? |
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Definition
| SIPR does not provide acces to the internet or any other lower classificaiton networks |
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Term
| What is the name of the concept that DOD uses in network defense? |
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Definition
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Term
| Where would a network monitoring device such as an ASIM be placed in relation to the netowrk? |
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Definition
| placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks |
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Term
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Definition
| encapsulating a message inside a 2nd message that will pass thorugh the firewall |
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Term
| What kind of servers would typically befound in a DMZ? |
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Definition
| all servers in a netowrk enclave that interface with the internet |
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Term
| What is the simplest an dleast expensive type of firewall? |
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Definition
| Packet Filtering Firewall |
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Term
| What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas? |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe the 2 categories that security related access controls fall into? |
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Definition
| Technical and Administrative controls |
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Term
| Regardless of the source of the threat, what is it usually targeting? |
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Definition
| A vulnerability or weakness in the network |
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Term
| How does a virus activiate? |
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Definition
| the infected program must execute, activating the virus |
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Term
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Definition
| Group of computers that have been infected by bots under the control of a person or group |
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Term
| How is a Trojan horse different from a regular virus? |
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Definition
| it does not replicate itself |
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Term
| What step is taken before an IS is connected to the AFGIG? |
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Definition
| Baseline configuration applied to the prior |
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Term
| What does the PKI enable users of basically unsecured public networks to do? |
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Definition
| to securely and privately exchange data through the use of public and private crypto key pars obtained and shared through a trusted authority |
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Term
| Describe a symmetric central server architecture |
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Definition
| where each entity in the community shares a secret key with the central server |
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Term
| What do users use to verify that a particular public key belongs to a particular user? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is a CA responsible for |
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Definition
| establishing, authenticating, maintaining, revoking certs and hardware |
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Term
| What are the 2 ways that key establishment can occur? |
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Definition
| Key transfer and key agreement |
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Term
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Definition
| one entity generates the symmetric key and sends it to the other etity |
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Term
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Definition
| both entities jointly contribute to the genereation of the symmetric key |
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Term
| How long should ECDSA and ECDH keys be to provide adequate security for the medium-to-long term? |
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Definition
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Term
| What was the fundamental premise in the original formulation of public-key cryptography? |
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Definition
| 2 strangers should be able to communicate securely |
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Term
| What does the PKI user population trust CA authorities to do? |
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Definition
| Perform the function of binding a public key to a given identity |
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Term
| What are the 4 configurations for CA servers? |
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Definition
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Term
| What happens when a cert on a CRL is used? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the difference between a software token and a hardware token? |
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Definition
| HW token - built in security ofsome sort that must be entered to use the cert/keys |
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Term
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Definition
| Identity, email signing, encryption |
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Term
| What does the global directory service providce for? |
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Definition
| the ability to search for individiuals, access information about them |
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Term
| What does middleware allow the use of? |
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Definition
| a wide variety of customers to access a single DB, translating diverse input into something the DB can understand |
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Term
| What does combat-ready communications and information forces provide? |
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Definition
| first-in capabilities to support peacetime through combat operations worldwide |
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Term
| Who plans, engineers, deploys, and employs support for all air and space forces? |
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Definition
| Communications and Information (C&I) professionals |
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Term
| Why do we have quicker response times, an efficient use of resources, and more effective training than previous Air and Space Expeditionary Force deployments? |
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Definition
| Versatiility and Flexability |
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Term
| Within what time frames are initial communications support designed to proved basic communications to a bare base operations? |
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Definition
| 24-72 hours of deployment notification |
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Term
| What are the 3 major components in the TDC program? |
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Definition
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Term
| What program is a state-of-the-art groundcommunications infrastructure that is designed to replace existing older communications systems? |
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Definition
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Term
| Is TDC-ICAP used in initial communications support or sustained communications support? |
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Definition
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Term
| What concept allows planners to scale the netowrk to meet the needs of deployments ranging from a few subscribers to a full wing, or even a Joint AF Command Component? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the conduit that ties all the LANs together and provides the interface to other networks? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which phase of the deployment cycle is all the preparation done? |
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Definition
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Term
| What order indicates that your unit may deploy? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which pahse in the deplyment cycle do you enter after disembarking from your transportation? |
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Definition
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Term
| In which phase of the deployment cycle do you replace and or repair worn equipment and replenish supplies? |
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Definition
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